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Muscular System with muscular and skeletal system disorders

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name this muscle

a)

Pectoralis Major

b)

Pectoralis Minor

c)

Bicep

d)

Hamstring

2.

Name this muscle

a)

Trapezius

b)

Pectoralis Major

c)

Deltoid

d)

Tricep

3.

Name this muscle

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Deltoid

c)

Tricep

d)

Bicep

4.

Name this muscle

a)

Abdominal

b)

Rectus

Abdominals

c)

Abs

d)

Abbbs

5.

Name this muscle

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quads

c)

Rectus Femoris

d)

Groin

6.
a)

Deltoid

b)

Latissimus Dorsi

c)

Trapezius

d)

Tricep

7.

Name this muscle

a)

Triceps

b)

Biceps

c)

Latissimus Dorsi

d)

Deltoid

8.

Name this muscle

a)

Hamstring

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Booty

d)

Gluteus Maximus

9.

Name this muscle

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Achilles

c)

Calves

d)

Fibula

10.

Name this muscle

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Quads

c)

Calves

d)

Hamstrings

11.

Name this muscle

a)

Deltoid

b)

Trapezius

c)

Latissimus Dorsi

d)

Spinal Column

12.
a)
internal obliques
b)
external obliques
c)
rectus abdominus
d)
tranverse obliques
13.
Which muscle rotates and flexes your head?
a)
masseter
b)
temporalis
c)
platysma
d)
sternocleidomastoid
14.

What are the primary muscles used for push ups?

a)

Rectus Abdominis

b)

Pectoralis Major

c)

Obliques

d)

Deltoids

15.

What is the process called when muscles adapt to progressively greater demands?

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Repair

d)

Inflammation

16.

What is the term for the process of muscles shrinking due to lack of resistance?

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Repair

d)

Inflammation

17.
How many Muscles are in the Skeletal System?
a)
500
b)
600
c)
300
d)
200
18.
Muscles give us shape and help us maintain good posture?
a)
True
b)
False
19.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Bicep
d)
Satorius
20.
a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Biceps Brachii

c)

Gracilis

d)

Obliques

21.
a)

Rhomboids

b)

Latissimus Dorsi

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Gastrocnemius

22.

Which of the following is a common symptom of fibromyalgia?

a)

Chronic widespread pain

b)

High fever

c)

Severe cough

d)

Skin rash

23.

Fibromyalgia is what type of disease?

a)

auto immune

b)

bacterial infection

c)

viral infection

d)

low immune system

24.

Which of the following is NOT typically used to help manage fibromyalgia symptoms?

a)

Cognitive behavioral therapy

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Medications for pain relief

d)

Physical exercise

25.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of wet gangrene?

a)

Gradual tissue mummification

b)

Absence of bacterial infection

c)

Rapid tissue swelling and foul odor

d)

Dry, shriveled tissue

26.

What is the most common cause of wet gangrene?

a)

Arterial blockage without infection

b)

Fungal infection

c)

Autoimmune reaction

d)

Bacterial infection in a wound with poor blood supply

27.

Which of the following best describes a muscle strain?

a)

Injury to a bone

b)

Injury to a muscle or tendon

c)

Injury to a ligament

d)

Injury to a nerve

28.

What is the main difference between a muscle strain and a muscle sprain?

a)

Strain affects ligaments, sprain affects muscles

b)

There is no difference

c)

Strain affects muscles/tendons, sprain affects ligaments

d)

Both affect only bones

29.

Which of the following is a common symptom of both muscle strains and sprains?

a)

Rash

b)

Fever

c)

Shortness of breath

d)

Swelling and pain

30.

Which of the following is a typical feature of dry gangrene?

a)

Presence of a foul odor

b)

Dry, blackened, and shriveled tissue

c)

Rapid spread with severe pain

d)

Wet, swollen tissue with pus

31.

What is the most common underlying cause of dry gangrene?

a)

Allergic reaction

b)

Venous insufficiency

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Arterial obstruction

32.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing dry gangrene?

a)

Acute bacterial infection

b)

Chronic arterial disease

c)

Severe frostbite

d)

Diabetes mellitus

33.

Which of the following best describes a muscular contracture?

a)

Inflammation of muscle tissue

b)

Sudden involuntary muscle spasm

c)

Temporary muscle fatigue after exercise

d)

Permanent shortening of a muscle or joint

34.

What is a common cause of muscular contracture?

a)

Frequent aerobic exercise

b)

Excessive stretching

c)

Prolonged immobilization

d)

High protein diet

35.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of muscular contracture?

a)

Muscle hypertrophy

b)

Increased joint flexibility

c)

Restricted range of motion

d)

Sudden muscle twitching

36.

Which of the following is the most common type of muscular dystrophy?

a)

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

b)

Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

c)

Myotonic dystrophy

d)

Becker muscular dystrophy

37.

What is the primary cause of muscular dystrophy?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Genetic mutation

c)

Vitamin deficiency

d)

Excessive exercise

38.

Which of the following is a common symptom of muscular dystrophy?

a)

Sudden weight gain

b)

Progressive muscle weakness

c)

Joint swelling

d)

High fever

39.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis?

a)

Severe joint pain

b)

Persistent high fever

c)

Progressive muscle weakness that improves with rest

d)

Sudden weight gain

40.

Myasthenia gravis most commonly affects which part of the body first?

a)

Facial and leg muscles

b)

Abdominal muscles

c)

chest muscles

d)

Back muscles

41.

Which of the following best describes the underlying cause of myasthenia gravis?

a)

Excessive physical activity

b)

Genetic mutation in muscle fibers

c)

Autoimmune attack on the thymus gland

d)

Bacterial infection of muscle tissue

42.

Which of the following is a common symptom of osteoarthritis?

a)

Skin rash

b)

Joint pain and stiffness

c)

High fever

d)

Sudden weight loss

43.

Which joint is most commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

a)

Elbow

b)

Knee

c)

Wrist

d)

Shoulder

44.

What is the primary cause of cartilage breakdown in osteoarthritis?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Autoimmune attack

c)

Wear and tear over time

d)

Vitamin deficiency

45.

Which of the following is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis in adults?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

46.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of osteomyelitis?

a)

Sudden vision loss

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Localized bone pain and swelling

d)

Skin rash

47.

What is the most appropriate initial imaging modality for suspected acute osteomyelitis?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

CT scan

c)

MRI

d)

X-ray

48.

Which of the following best describes scoliosis?

a)

Inflammation of the joints

b)

S-shaped curvature of the spine

c)

Loss of bone density

d)

Muscle weakness in the legs

49.

What is the most common age group for the onset of scoliosis?

a)

Adolescents (10-18 years)

b)

Adults (30-50 years)

c)

Infants (0-2 years)

d)

Older adults (65+ years)

50.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of scoliosis?

a)

High fever

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Uneven shoulders or hips

d)

Sudden vision loss

51.

Which of the following best describes kyphosis?

a)

Inflammation of the vertebral discs

b)

Lateral curvature of the spine

c)

Excessive outward L-shaped curvature of the thoracic spine

d)

Excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine

52.

Which of the following is a common cause of kyphosis in elderly individuals?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Viral infection

c)

High-impact sports

d)

Muscle strain

53.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with severe kyphosis?

a)

Frequent headaches

b)

Difficulty breathing

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Blurred vision

54.

The body has several organ systems. Which organ system is pictured here?

a)

muscular system

b)

skeletal system

c)

digestive system

d)

circulatory system

e)

respiratory system

f)

nervous system

1
1)
55.

Please label the back image of the muscular system.

a)

Trapezius

b)

Gluteus Maximum

c)

External Oblique

d)

Soleus

e)

Deltoid

1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
56.

Please label the back image of the muscular system.

a)

Trapezius

b)

Gluteus Maximum

1
2
1)
2)
57.

Please label the back image of the muscular system.

a)

Trapezius

b)Gluteus maximus
c)Lattisimus dorsi
d)Gastrocnemius
e)

Deltoid

1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
58.

Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing osteoporosis?

a)

Young age

b)

Postmenopausal status

c)

Regular weight-bearing exercise

d)

High calcium intake

59.

What is the most common complication associated with osteoporosis?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Bone fractures

c)

Joint dislocation

d)

Skin rash

60.

Which of the following nutrients is most important for bone health and prevention of osteoporosis?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Iron

c)

Potassium

d)

Vitamin D

61.

Which of the following joint movements describes decreasing the angle between two bones at a joint?

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Rotation

d)

Abduction

62.

What type of movement occurs when you move your arm away from the midline of your body?

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

63.

Which joint movement allows you to turn your palm upward?

a)

Eversion

b)

Inversion

c)

Supination

d)

Pronation

64.

Which of the following best differentiates rheumatoid arthritis from osteoarthritis?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis is primarily caused by wear and tear of cartilage

b)

Osteoarthritis commonly affects small joints symmetrically

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease affecting the synovial membrane

d)

Osteoarthritis usually presents with morning stiffness lasting more than an hour

65.

Which of the following genetic mutations is most commonly associated with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

a)

Mutation in the collagen VI gene

b)

Mutation in the myotonic dystrophy protein kinase gene

c)

Mutation in the dystrophin gene on the X chromosome

d)

Mutation in the SMN1 gene

66.

How does the age of onset of Duchenne muscular dystrophy typically compare to Becker muscular dystrophy?

a)

Duchenne and Becker have the same age of onset

b)

Duchenne has a later onset than Becker

c)

Both conditions only appear in adulthood

d)

Duchenne has an earlier onset than Becker

67.

Which of the following is a distinguishing clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy compared to other forms?

a)

Onset of symptoms in late adulthood

b)

Rapid progression of muscle weakness in early childhood

c)

Predominant facial muscle involvement

d)

Improvement of symptoms with age

68.

What is the average life expectancy for individuals diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy in recent years?

a)

5-10 years

b)

15-20 years

c)

40-50 years

d)

25-35 years

69.

At what age do most individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy typically lose the ability to walk independently?

a)

Between ages 20 and 30

b)

Before age 5

c)

Between ages 7 and 13

d)

After age 40

70.

Which of the following best describes a comminuted fracture?

a)

The bone breaks into several pieces

b)

The bone is partially broken

c)

The bone bends but does not break

d)

The bone breaks cleanly into two parts

71.

What type of fracture is commonly seen in children due to their flexible bones?

a)

Transverse fracture

b)

Compression fracture

c)

Oblique fracture

d)

Greenstick fracture

72.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an open (compound) fracture?

a)

The bone is broken but the skin remains intact

b)

The broken bone pierces through the skin

c)

The fracture occurs only in the cartilage

d)

The bone is bent but not broken

73.

Which of the following best describes a comminuted fracture?

a)

A bone is partially dislocated

b)

A bone is shattered into three or more fragments

c)

A bone is bent but not broken

d)

A bone is broken into two pieces

74.

Which of the following vitamins and minerals

play a key role in bone healing?

a)

Calcium, Vitamin D, Vitamin K2-MK7, Magnesium, Phosphorus

b)

Calcium, Vitamin D, Magnesium, Phosphorus

c)

Calcium, Vitamin D, Vitamin Phosphorus

d)

Potassium

75.

Deficiency of which mineral can delay the healing of wounds?

a)

Copper

b)

Zinc

c)

Calcium

d)

Iron

76.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Compound

b)

Comminuted

c)

Simple

d)

Spiral

77.

Spinal deformity that causes the hunchback appearance:

a)

scoliosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

lordosis

d)

spina bifida

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