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2205 Exam 3 OT

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A postpartum client with active hemorrhage receives tranexamic acid. Which finding indicates the medication is addressing its intended mechanism, not uterine tone?

a)

Firm fundus

b)

Reduced fibrin breakdown

c)

Decreased uterine size

d)

Increased afterpains

2.

A postpartum client with suspected DIC has continued oozing from IV sites. Which additional finding most strongly supports the diagnosis?

a)

Elevated fibrinogen

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Increased hematocrit

3.

Methylergonovine is administered for postpartum hemorrhage. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold the next dose?

a)

Uterine cramping

b)

Lochia rubra

c)

Blood pressure 162/98 mm Hg

d)

Decreased afterpains

4.

A postpartum client reports severe rectal pressure and unrelieved pain despite minimal vaginal bleeding. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Endometritis

c)

Vulvar hematoma

d)

Subinvolution

5.

A postpartum client experiences profuse diaphoresis and increased urine output at 12 hours postpartum. How should the nurse interpret this finding?

a)

Fluid overload

b)

Renal dysfunction

c)

Normal postpartum adaptation

d)

Early infection

6.

Which client history places a postpartum client at highest risk for hemorrhage?

a)

Short labor

b)

Primiparity

c)

Overdistended uterus

d)

Early ambulation

7.

Which maternal behavior best supports Baby-Friendly psychosocial adaptation?

a)

Limiting visitors

b)

Encouraging skin-to-skin contact

c)

Scheduled feeding only

d)

Nursery use overnight

8.

Which condition contributes to subinvolution by preventing adequate uterine contraction?

a)

Early ambulation

b)

Retained placental fragments

c)

Diuresis

d)

Oxytocin release

9.

Why is fundal massage contraindicated after uterine inversion is corrected?

a)

It increases bleeding

b)

It may cause reinversion

c)

It worsens pain

d)

It interferes with oxytocin

10.

Which postpartum client is most likely to develop thrombophlebitis?

a)

Ambulating within 2 hours

b)

History of varicose veins

c)

Vaginal delivery

d)

Breastfeeding

11.

Which postpartum mental health finding requires urgent intervention?

a)

Tearfulness on day 2

b)

Fatigue

c)

Thoughts of harming the newborn

d)

Mood swings

12.

Which bladder change is expected postpartum?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Increased bladder tone

c)

Diuresis

d)

Dysuria

13.

At 12 hours postpartum, which finding is expected?

a)

Lochia alba

b)

Elevated fibrinogen

c)

Hypotension

d)

Oliguria

14.

Which imaging study is most appropriate to confirm pulmonary embolism postpartum?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Doppler ultrasound

c)

CT pulmonary angiography

d)

MRI abdomen

15.

A client with Von Willebrand disease is postpartum. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Thrombosis

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Infection

16.

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura primarily increases risk for:

a)

Infection

b)

Bleeding

c)

Hypertension

d)

Uterine atony

17.

Which mastitis finding differentiates it from engorgement?

a)

Bilateral fullness

b)

Localized erythema with fever

c)

Milk leakage

d)

Warmth after feeding

18.

Which intrapartum factor increases postpartum hemorrhage risk?

a)

Short second stage

b)

Operative vaginal delivery

c)

Early ambulation

d)

Breastfeeding

19.

Which lab trend supports effective clotting postpartum?

a)

Decreased fibrinogen

b)

Elevated fibrinogen

c)

Prolonged PT

d)

Thrombocytopenia

20.

Shock index elevation postpartum primarily reflects:

a)

Pain response

b)

Blood volume loss

c)

Anxiety

d)

Infection

21.

Which hematoma location is most difficult to visualize?

a)

Vulvar

b)

Vaginal

c)

Cervical

d)

Perineal

22.

OASIS injuries primarily involve damage to which structure?

a)

Vaginal mucosa

b)

Cervix

c)

Anal sphincter

d)

Bladder

23.

Placenta accreta differs from increta because it:

a)

Penetrates the myometrium

b)

Attaches superficially

c)

Invades through uterine wall

d)

Causes inversion

24.

Placenta percreta most increases risk for which intervention?

a)

Manual extraction

b)

D&C

c)

Hysterectomy

d)

Uterine massage

25.

Which uterotonic is avoided in hypertensive clients?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Tranexamic acid

26.

Active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL) primarily reduces risk for:

a)

Infection

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

DVT

d)

Subinvolution

27.

Which postpartum client should receive Tdap?

a)

Vaccinated prenatally

b)

Unknown vaccination status

c)

Immune to rubella

d)

Breastfeeding

28.

Why is docusate sodium commonly prescribed postpartum?

a)

Reduce uterine bleeding

b)

Prevent constipation and straining

c)

Treat hemorrhoids

d)

Increase peristalsis

29.

A postpartum client with known von Willebrand disease reports her provider said, “Type 3 is the most severe.” Which statement best reflects what that means clinically postpartum?

a)

“Type 3 is the type with the least clotting factor available.”

b)

“Type 3 increases clot formation more than Type 1.”

c)

“Type 3 mainly causes hypertension-related bleeding.”

d)

“Type 3 is mild and usually needs no monitoring.”

30.

(ITP vs “normal postpartum labs” trap) A postpartum client has petechiae and bruising with minimal trauma. Which lab pattern most supports idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) as the bleeding contributor?

a)

Increased fibrinogen and elevated platelets

b)

Markedly decreased platelets with bleeding findings

c)

Prolonged PT with elevated fibrinogen

d)

Increased RBC sedimentation rate only

31.

(Endometritis vs normal lochia vs hemorrhage — “what do you treat first?”) A client is day 4 postpartum with uterine tenderness, fever, and lochia that is dark and profuse with foul odor. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate as most consistent with this condition?

a)

Give methylergonovine IM now

b)

Administer tranexamic acid now

c)

Start IV antibiotics (broad spectrum) as prescribed

d)

Discontinue breastfeeding immediately

32.

(DIC expected findings — “two-body problem” trap) A postpartum client has heavy bleeding and oozing from IV sites. Which set of findings best matches DIC concern?

a)

Increased platelets and shortened PT

b)

Increased fibrinogen and decreased D-dimer

c)

Increased Hgb/Hct with stable VS

d)

Decreased platelets with prolonged clotting time trends

33.

(Shock Index — trend recognition) A postpartum client has increasing bleeding. Which data pattern best supports rising shock concern using the shock index concept (pulse rising out of proportion to BP)?

a)

HR rising while BP trends downward or stays “not that low” yet

b)

HR falling with BP rising

c)

HR stable with BP stable

d)

HR stable with BP rising

34.

A client is 1 hour postpartum with heavy bright-red bleeding. The fundus is firm and midline. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Perform fundal massage again until cramping increases

b)

Inspect for lacerations or hematoma and notify the provider of a suspected trauma source

c)

Administer tocolytic medication to relax the uterus

d)

Document as normal lochia rubra and reassess later

35.

A client reports severe perineal pain and pressure after an episiotomy. The pad shows minimal bleeding. Which assessment is most appropriate to confirm suspected vulvar hematoma?

a)

Fundal height only

b)

Lochia color only

c)

Visual inspection and palpation for a tense, bluish swelling mass

d)

Lung sounds and oxygen saturation only

36.

A postpartum client had an OASIS injury repair. Which statement requires immediate correction?

a)

“I’ll use ice packs the first 24 hours if recommended.”

b)

“I’ll report fever, worsening pain, or foul drainage.”

c)

“I’ll avoid straining and follow stool-softener teaching.”

d)

“If I’m uncomfortable, I’ll skip stool softeners so I don’t have a bowel movement.”

37.

A nurse is performing fundal massage for a boggy uterus. Which action is most important to avoid?

a)

Applying continuous deep pressure without reassessment of tone

b)

Rechecking lochia amount after massage

c)

Encouraging the client to void if bladder distention is suspected

d)

Monitoring uterine response and bleeding after intervention

38.

A postpartum client has continued hemorrhage despite firm external fundal massage and uterotonics. Which intervention is most consistent with the next escalation listed in postpartum hemorrhage management teaching?

a)

Give tocolytic medication immediately

b)

Prepare for bimanual uterine massage as indicated by protocol or provider

c)

Encourage ambulation to help contract the uterus

d)

Delay escalation until lab results return

39.

A nurse explains active management of the third stage of labor. Which outcome is the primary goal?

a)

Prevent postpartum infection

b)

Prevent deep vein thrombosis

c)

Reduce postpartum hemorrhage risk

d)

Prevent postpartum depression

40.

A client has a history concerning for placenta percreta. Which outcome is most consistent with why this is a surgical emergency risk postpartum?

a)

It causes milk stasis

b)

It causes urinary tract infections

c)

It causes mastitis

d)

It increases risk for severe bleeding requiring surgical intervention

41.

A postpartum client has hemorrhage and chronic hypertension. Which uterotonic choice is most appropriate to anticipate not being contraindicated solely due to hypertension?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Any uterotonic is contraindicated

d)

No meds can be used

42.

A nurse evaluates effectiveness of methylergonovine after administration. Which finding best indicates the medication is not effective?

a)

Uterine cramping with firm fundus

b)

Persistent heavy bleeding despite improved uterine tone attempts

c)

Decreased lochia with midline fundus

d)

Mild afterpains during breastfeeding

43.

A postpartum client develops hemorrhage shortly after birth. Which order best matches recommended timing emphasis for tranexamic acid use?

a)

Give after 24 hours postpartum

b)

Hold until lochia turns serosa

c)

Administer within 3 hours of birth when hemorrhage occurs

d)

Use only if blood pressure is elevated

44.

A postpartum client with hemorrhage has a history of thrombosis and currently uses oral contraceptives. Which order should the nurse question most?

a)

Tranexamic acid

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Fundal assessment

45.

A client has uterine inversion with hemorrhage. Which medication is used to relax the uterus prior to manual replacement?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Tranexamic acid

46.

A client experiences uterine inversion while oxytocin is infusing. Which action is required?

a)

Increase oxytocin infusion

b)

Stop oxytocin if it is being administered

c)

Switch to oral oxytocin immediately

d)

Continue infusion and reassess later

47.

After uterine replacement for inversion, which action is specifically appropriate?

a)

Aggressive fundal massage every 15 min

b)

Encourage vigorous ambulation immediately

c)

Avoid aggressive fundal massage

d)

Discontinue all oxytocics permanently

48.

A postpartum client reports unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Massage the calf to improve circulation

b)

Apply heating pad and reassess tomorrow

c)

Encourage frequent ambulation without notifying provider

d)

Treat as possible deep vein thrombosis and anticipate Doppler ultrasound per protocol or provider

49.

A nurse provides discharge teaching to a postpartum client. Which statement requires correction?

a)

If my calf becomes painful and red, I’ll massage it to improve blood flow.

b)

I’ll avoid crossing my legs.

c)

I’ll report extremity pain, redness, or swelling.

d)

I’ll maintain hydration as instructed.

50.

A postpartum client has sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and hypoxia. Which diagnostic study is most consistent with confirming pulmonary embolism in the teaching materials?

a)

Chest x-ray only

b)

CT pulmonary angiography or ventilation–perfusion scan per protocol

c)

Urinalysis

d)

Doppler ultrasound of uterus

51.

A postpartum client has suspected pulmonary embolism. Which immediate nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Place the client flat and supine

b)

Encourage walking to open lungs

c)

Administer oxygen as ordered and position to support breathing with the head of bed elevated

d)

Restrict oxygen to avoid dryness

52.

A postpartum client with urinary tract infection reports new flank pain at the costovertebral angle and fever. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Mastitis

b)

Endometritis

c)

Normal postpartum bladder changes

d)

Pyelonephritis risk progression

53.

A postpartum client has a boggy uterus displaced laterally. Which action is most appropriate first?

a)

Assess for bladder distention and assist to empty the bladder

b)

Give tranexamic acid first

c)

Give tocolytics first

d)

Stop all uterotonics

54.

Which finding is most consistent with normal physiologic changes around 12 hours postpartum?

a)

Lochia alba

b)

Increased diaphoresis and diuresis

c)

Sudden chest pain with hypoxia

d)

Foul-smelling lochia

55.

A postpartum client has diaphoresis and diuresis but also tachycardia and fever greater than 38°C after 24 hours. How should the nurse interpret this combined data?

a)

Normal postpartum adaptation only

b)

Expected after breastfeeding

c)

Normal lochia transition

d)

Requires further investigation for infection concern

56.

A breastfeeding postpartum client has mastitis. Which teaching is most appropriate to prevent milk stasis and support recovery?

a)

Avoid emptying the affected breast

b)

Stop breastfeeding until antibiotics are complete

c)

Continue frequent breastfeeding or pumping and empty the breast

d)

Restrict fluids to reduce milk production

57.

Which organism is typically responsible for mastitis?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

E. coli

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Group B streptococcus

58.

Which client is at greatest risk for postpartum endometritis?

a)

Uncomplicated vaginal birth with intact perineum

b)

Cesarean birth with prolonged labor and multiple vaginal exams after rupture of membranes

c)

Early ambulation with adequate hydration

d)

Exclusive breastfeeding with good latch

59.

A client’s cesarean incision edges separate with seropurulent drainage but no organs visible. Which term best fits?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Mastitis

c)

Wound dehiscence

60.

(Evisceration) A postpartum wound separates and internal contents protrude through the opening. Which term applies?

a)

Dehiscence

b)

Hematoma

c)

Mastitis

d)

Evisceration

61.

(4 T’s — apply to scenario) A postpartum client has a firm uterus but continuous bleeding with visible tear. Which “T” is the cause?

a)

Trauma

b)

Tone

c)

Tissue

d)

Thrombin

62.

(4 T’s — thrombin scenario) A postpartum client has persistent bleeding and oozing at IV sites with bruising. Which “T” is most consistent?

a)

Trauma

b)

Thrombin

c)

Tissue

d)

Tone

63.

(4 T’s — tissue scenario) A postpartum client has late bleeding weeks later with suspected retained fragments and subinvolution. Which “T” fits?

a)

Trauma

b)

Tone

c)

Tissue

d)

Thrombin

64.

(Tone) A postpartum client has a boggy uterus with heavy lochia that improves when massaged but returns when massage stops. Which “T” fits?

a)

Tissue

b)

Trauma

c)

Thrombin

d)

Tone

65.

(Retained placenta definition) A placenta has not delivered within 30 minutes after birth. This finding is documented as:

a)

Retained placenta

b)

Subinvolution

c)

Uterine atony

d)

Normal third-stage delay

66.

(Accreta/increta/percreta — matching) Which retained placenta type describes invasion into the myometrium?

a)

Accreta

b)

Increta

c)

Percreta

d)

Atony-related retention

67.

(Percreta definition) Which retained placenta type describes penetration through the uterine wall?

a)

Accreta

b)

Increta

c)

Percreta

d)

Subinvolution

68.

(Surgical intervention — when tamponade fails) A postpartum hemorrhage persists despite uterotonics and tamponade. Which escalation is most consistent with “surgical intervention” concept?

a)

Continue pads and reassess in 1 hr

b)

Encourage ambulation

c)

Stop IV access

d)

Prepare for surgical management per provider (e.g., operative intervention)

69.

(Tamponade concept) Which intervention is described as placing an intrauterine balloon device to control hemorrhage?

a)

Uterine tamponade

b)

Docusate sodium

c)

Tdap

d)

V/Q scan

70.

(AMTSL — timing trick) Which stage is AMTSL most directly associated with?

a)

First stage labor

b)

Third stage (placental delivery stage)

c)

Fourth stage only

d)

Neonatal period

71.

(Varicella postpartum teaching — purpose trap) A postpartum client is nonimmune to varicella. Which teaching is most appropriate?

a)

“Avoid vaccines postpartum.”

b)

“Vaccines are only for newborns.”

c)

“You may be offered postpartum vaccination if indicated.”

d)

“Varicella vaccination treats hemorrhage.”

72.

(Tdap — postpartum education trap) Which postpartum teaching best matches why Tdap is addressed in discharge education?

a)

It prevents uterine atony

b)

It treats endometritis

c)

It reduces need for stool softeners

d)

It supports immunization protection planning postpartum as indicated

73.

(Docusate — clinical trick) A postpartum client has a repaired episiotomy and reports fear of first bowel movement. Which order best supports preventing a complication of straining?

a)

Docusate sodium

b)

Oxytocin