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WorksheetsPSYCHOPATHOLOGY
Total questions: 77
Worksheet time: 39mins
In intellectual development, a specifier is used to indicate level of severity, which is based on adapting functions in
Emotional
Conceptual
Social
Practical
In a study comparing the reactions of children aged 3 to 4 years with and without autism to novel and familiar faces and objects, how do children with autism typically respond differently compared to children without autism?
Children with autism react more differently to novel faces than to familiar faces.
Children with autism react similarly to both novel and familiar faces, but differently to novel and familiar objects
Children without autism react similarly to novel and familiar objects but different to novel and familiar faces.
Children without autism react similarly to both novel and familiar faces, but differently to objects.
Which of the following are recognized environmental risk factors for autism spectrum disorder?
Exposure to valproic acid during prenatal development
Advanced parental age
Exposure to heavy metals like lead during early childhood
Birth before 26 weeks of gestation
Which brain regions are commonly associated with abnormalities in autism spectrum disorder?
Cerebellum, corpus callosum, and amygdala
Hippocampus, amygdala, and thalamus
Prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and basal ganglia
Parietal lobe, amygdala, and insula
Which neurotransmitters are commonly implicated in the pathophysiology of autism spectrum disorder?
Serotonin, Dopamine, and Non-repinephrine
GABA, Glutamate, and Non-repinephrine
Serotonin, Dopamine, GABA, Glutamate, and Acetylcholine
Dopamine, GABA, and Endorphins
Which of the following core treatments are commonly used in early intensive behavioral intervention for autism spectrum disorder?
Sensory integration therapy and play therapy
Social skills training and peer modeling
Cognitive restructuring and exposure therapy
Shaping and discrimination training
Which of the following are criteria for diagnosing Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
Symptoms must be present before the age of 16 and must persist for at least six months
At least six symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity for individuals under 18, and at least five symptoms for individuals 18 and older
At least four symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity in one setting
Onset before 12 years of age, present in at least two settings, and causes significant impairment
What is the most common comorbid disorder associated with ADHD?
Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Conduct Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder
What is the typical trajectory of ADHD across the lifespan?
ADHD symptoms generally diminish completely by middle adulthood.
Most children with ADHD continue to experience some symptoms into adulthood, though the nature of these symptoms may change.
Women with ADHD typically outgrow all symptoms by adulthood but not men.
Most children with ADHD continue to experience some symptoms into adulthood, and the nature of these symptoms stay same.
Which neurotransmitters are implicated in ADHD?
Low levels of dopamine , and increased acetylcholine
Low levels of dopamine and norepinephrine, along with elevated serotonin
Low levels of dopamine and norepinephrine
High levels of dopamine and norepinephrine, coupled with imbalances in GABA
Which brain abnormalities are commonly implicated in ADHD?
Impaired temporal information processing and cerebellum
Enlarged ventricles in the brain
Hyperactivity in the hippocampus
Increased blood flow in the cerebellum
What brain abnormalities have been observed in children with ADHD?
Increased cortical thickness in the temporal lobe and reduced cerebellar activity
Increased activity in the temporal lobe and enlarged ventricles
Reduced total brain volume and smaller prefrontal cortex, striatum, corpus callosum, and cerebellum volumes
Larger hippocampal volume and heightened dopamine receptor density
Which environmental factors are known to contribute to the development of ADHD, aside from genetic influences
High levels of time spent with authoritarian parents in early childhood
Slower acquisition of motor skills during early development
Extended time spent in an incubator
Lower birth weight
What is the treatment of choice for preschool children with ADHD?
Immediate prescription of stimulant medications
Parent- and teacher-administered behavioral interventions, such as positive parenting programs and parent-child interaction therapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as the first-line approach
Exclusive focus on dietary changes and supplements
What are the recommended treatments for adolescents with ADHD?
Behavioral therapy, motivational interviewing, mindfulness-based training, and classroom training
Behavioral therapy combined with stimulant medications and cognitive-behavioral therapy
Psychoeducation and environmental modifications only
A combination of mindfulness-based training and dietary supplements
What is the first-line treatment for adults with ADHD?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy
A combination of medication and psychosocial interventions, with cognitive-behavioral therapy having the strongest support
Dietary supplements and lifestyle changes
Stimulant medications
Which of the following best describes the criteria for Provisional Tic Disorder?
Multiple motor tics with no vocal tics, persisting for less than one year
Presence of one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have lasted for more than 9 months.
Presence of one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before age 18
Presence of one or more motor and vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before age 18
What are the criteria for diagnosing Tourette’s Disorder?
At least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics, with tics persisting for more than two year and onset before age 18
At least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics, with tics persisting for more than two year and onset before age 18
At least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics, with tics persisting for more than one year and onset before age 18
At least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics, with tics persisting for more than one year and onset before age 18
Which neurotransmitter and brain characteristics are associated with Tourette’s Disorder?
Serotonin deficiency and enlarged basal ganglia
Norepinephrine deficiency and enlarged hippocampus
Dopamine overactivity and smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, and heritability
Glutamate overactivity and reduced amygdala size
What is the primary behavioral treatment for Tourette’s Disorder?
Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT), including psychoeducation, shaping, habit reversal, competing response, and relaxation training
Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT), including psychoeducation, social support, positive reinforcement and competing response,.
Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT), including psychoeducation, social support, habit reversal, competing response, and relaxation training
Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT), including psychoeducation, social support, stimulus discrimination, competing response, and relaxation training
What does habit reversal entail in the treatment of Tourette’s Disorder?
Using behavioral techniques that do not directly address the tic, like general stress management
Increasing awareness of tics and teaching an alternative behavior that is physically incompatible with the tic
A method of gradually reducing tic frequency through mindfulness and relaxation techniques
Using breathing technique to prevent the tic from occurring
What are the key symptoms of Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder?
A pattern of speech disruptions that persist in boys over time and include at least one of seven specific symptoms, such as blocks, prolongations, or repetitions
A temporary and situational fluency disorder that resolves with intervention and occurs before age 15
Intermittent and inconsistent fluency disruptions that are triggered by stress or excitement
Persistent disturbance in normal fluency and time-patterning of speech that is inappropriate for the individual’s age and language skills
At what age range does Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder typically begin, and what is the prognosis for recovery?
It usually begins between 2 and 7 years of age, and about 85% of children recover by age 8, with the severity at age 8 being predictive of long-term outcomes.
It usually begins between 5 and 10 years of age, and about 85% of children recover by age 8, with the severity at age 8 being predictive of long-term outcomes.
It commonly starts in early infancy and resolves without intervention by age 5.
It usually begins between 5 and 10 years of age, and about 10% children recover by age 8, with the severity at age 8 being predictive of long-term outcomes.
Which of the following best differentiates Persistent (Chronic) Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder from Tourette’s Disorder?
Presence of tics for less than one year
Onset after age 18 with both motor and vocal tics
Presence of either motor or vocal tics, but not both, for more than one year
Presence of both motor and vocal tics for at least one year
What is the treatment of choice for Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder, and what does it typically include?
Speech therapy that focuses solely on articulation and pronunciation
Habit Reversal Training, which encompasses competing response training and regulated breathing techniques
Medication, such as SSRIs, to reduce anxiety
Habit Reversal Training, which encompasses negative reinforcement and regulated breathing techniques
A 9-year-old boy is referred for evaluation due to persistent reading/spelling difficulties, despite receiving evidence-based reading interventions for 8 months. His full-scale IQ is average and there is no history of neurological, sensory or instructional problem. What is still needed for a diagnosis of Specific Learning disorder?
Symptoms must be present before age 7 and remain stable across development
Academic skills must be substantially below those expected for age and confirmed by standardized achievement testing
Difficulties must occur only in reading and not in written expression or mathematics
The child must also meet criteria for ADHD or a language disorder
Which of the following combinations best reflects the core DSM-5 diagnostic requirements for Specific Learning Disorder?
Academic difficulties lasting at least 6 months despite intervention, skills substantially below age expectations on standardized testing, onset during school-age years, and exclusion of intellectual disability and sensory deficits
Academic difficulties lasting at least 12 months, onset before age 7, and performance at least one standard deviation below the mean on IQ testing
Persistent academic impairment with fluctuating severity, presence of comorbid ADHD, and response to educational intervention
Academic difficulties confined to one subject area, average or below-average IQ, and symptoms present in at least two settings
Which pattern of findings most accurately supports the conclusion that autism spectrum disorder is strongly heritable but not entirely genetic?
Concordance rates of 85–100% in monozygotic twins and 50–70% in dizygotic twins
Concordance rates of 30–40% in monozygotic twins and 25–35% in dizygotic twins
Concordance rates of 10–20% in monozygotic twins and 5–15% in dizygotic twins
Concordance rates of 60–85% in monozygotic twins and 4–30% in dizygotic twins
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the prevalence and developmental course of Specific Learning Disorder?
Approximately 20–30% of adolescents are affected, most of whom have a written expression disorder, and symptoms typically first emerge in late adolescence
Approximately 1–3% of preschool children are affected, most of whom have a mathematics disorder, and symptoms typically appear before formal schooling begins
Approximately 5–15% of school-age children are affected, about 80% of whom have a reading disorder, and symptoms typically emerge during the early school years when academic demands increase
Approximately 5–15% of adults are affected, most of whom have a visual processing disorder, and symptoms typically emerge after secondary education
A child is diagnosed with specific learning disorder and later develops anxiety symptoms related to school performance.
Comorbid psychiatric conditions are rare in learning disorders
Individuals with learning disorders show elevated rates of other psychological problems
Learning disorders are purely academic and unrelated to emotional functioning
Emotional problems rule out a diagnosis of learning disorder
Which of the following correctly orders the frequency of learning disorders in school-age children?
Dysphonic dyslexia > Dyslexia > Reading disorder > Specific learning disorder
Specific learning disorder > Reading disorder > Dyslexia > Dysphonic dyslexia
Reading disorder > Specific learning disorder > Dysphonic dyslexia > Dyslexia
Dyslexia > Dysphonic dyslexia > Reading disorder > Specific learning disorder
A 10-year-old boy has average intelligence but struggles to decode unfamiliar words. He can recognize whole words he has memorized but consistently fails when asked to sound out new words. He has difficulty matching phonemes to graphemes.
Surface dyslexia
Visual dyslexia
Dysphonic dyslexia
Comprehension-based dyslexia
A behavioral geneticist is interpreting twin studies of ADHD. Which pattern of concordance rates best supports the conclusion that ADHD is strongly heritable but also influenced by non-genetic factors?
Monozygotic 63–80%, Dizygotic 21–30%
Monozygotic 95–100%, Dizygotic 50–60%
Monozygotic 35–45%, Dizygotic 30–40%
Monozygotic 20–30%, Dizygotic 20–30%
Which combination of brain regions is most strongly associated with these executive function deficits in ADHD?
A) Prefrontal cortex, striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen), and thalamus
B) Cerebellum and amygdala
C) Hippocampus and occipital cortex
D) Corpus callosum and temporal lobe
Cerebellum and amygdala
Hippocampus and occipital cortex
Corpus callosum and temporal lobe
A child with ADHD struggles to anticipate future events and organize sequences of tasks, such as completing multi-step school assignments in order.
Based on current neurobiological evidence, these difficulties are most closely linked to abnormalities in which brain regions?
Corpus callosum and thalamus
Caudate nucleus and putamen
Prefrontal cortex and amygdala
Prefrontal cortex and cerebellum
Which of the following criteria is essential for a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder according to the DSM-5?
The presence of at least one psychotic symptom (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior)
The presence of at least one of 4 symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior)
The presence of at least one of 5 symptom (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized , catatonic behavior and negative symptoms)
Symptoms must persist for at least one month but less than six months
Which of the following distinctions is most crucial in differentiating Schizophrenia from Schizophreniform Disorder?
Schizophreniform Disorder requires at least two of the five characteristic symptoms, and the episode lasts between one and six months
Schizophrenia requires an active phase of symptoms lasting at least one month, with at least two of the five characteristic symptoms, for more than 6 months.
Schizophrenia requires an active phase of symptoms lasting at least one month, with at least two of the five characteristic symptoms, and at least one being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech
Schizophreniform Disorder can only be diagnosed if mood symptoms are present
A clinician is explaining familial risk to a patient and wants to highlight how genetic loading increases across degrees of biological relatedness in a nonlinear pattern. Which ordering best reflects this principle?
Parent (6%) → Biological sibling (9%) → Child of one affected parent (13%)
Biological sibling (9%) → Dizygotic twin (17%) → Monozygotic twin (48%)
Parent (6%) → Dizygotic twin (17%) → Child of two affected parents (46%)
Child of one affected parent (13%) → Child of two affected parents (46%) → Monozygotic twin (48%)
A landmark family study examined adult offspring of twin pairs discordant for schizophrenia . Which pattern of findings most strongly supports the conclusion that genetic liability can be transmitted even when the parent does not express the disorder?
Offspring of affected monozygotic twins show higher risk than offspring of unaffected monozygotic twins
Offspring of affected dizygotic twins show the same risk as offspring of unaffected dizygotic twins
Offspring of both affected and unaffected monozygotic twins show similarly elevated risk
Offspring of unaffected dizygotic twins show higher risk than offspring of affected dizygotic twins
Which set of neurotransmitters has been most consistently linked to the pathophysiology of schizophrenia?
Dopamine, glutamate, and serotonin
Dopamine, acetylcholine, and GABA
Serotonin, norepinephrine, and Dopamine
Glutamate, GABA, and acetylcholine
A 24-year-old man with schizophrenia presents with persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. He is treated with a medication that primarily blocks dopamine D2 receptors and his positive symptoms significantly improve, but his affective flattening and avolition worsen.
Which explanation best accounts for this pattern of treatment response according to the revised dopamine hypothesis?
Dopamine hyperactivity in the prefrontal cortex drives positive symptoms, while dopamine hypoactivity in the striatum produces negative symptoms
Dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions accounts for positive symptoms, while dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions contributes to negative symptoms
Excess dopamine activity is uniform across the brain and explains both positive and negative symptoms equally
Dopamine hypoactivity in the striatum explains positive symptoms, while dopamine hyperactivity in the prefrontal cortex causes negative symptoms
Which of the following brain abnormalities is most consistently associated with schizophrenia and is thought to underlie its negative and cognitive symptoms?
Enlarged ventricles and hypofrontality
Reduced amygdala volume and hyperactivity of the temporal lobe
Increased hippocampal volume and hyperactivity of the prefrontal cortex
Cerebellar hypertrophy and increased activity in the occipital cortex
According to a neuroanatomical model consistent with the revised dopamine hypothesis, which pattern best explains the emergence of positive and negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
Dysfunction in the temporal-limbic-frontal network leads to negative symptoms, while disinhibition of subcortical areas increases striatal dopamine release, causing positive symptoms
Hyperactivity in the prefrontal cortex produces positive symptoms, while hypoactivity in the striatum causes negative symptoms
Reduced activity in the amygdala causes both positive and negative symptoms, with no involvement of striatal dopamine
Cerebellar dysfunction leads to disorganized behavior, while occipital lobe hyperactivity produces hallucinations
Which of the following statements best describes common comorbidities in individuals with schizophrenia?
Anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and tobacco use disorder are frequent comorbid conditions, with 70–85% of patients using tobacco and over half meeting criteria for tobacco use disorder
Major depressive disorder and alcohol use disorder are the most common comorbidities, while tobacco use is rare
Comorbid personality disorders are universal, and tobacco use occurs in fewer than 10% of individuals
Substance use is uncommon, but obsessive-compulsive disorder is present in nearly all patients
Which of the following best describes the typical age of onset and course of psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia?
Psychotic symptoms usually emerge in the late teens to early 30s, peaking in the early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females; positive symptoms often decrease with age, while negative and cognitive symptoms persist
Psychotic symptoms typically begin in childhood, with negative symptoms resolving by adulthood and positive symptoms persisting
Onset usually occurs after age 40, and both positive and negative symptoms gradually worsen with age
Schizophrenia symptoms emerge equally across all ages, with no difference between males and females
Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with a better prognosis in schizophrenia?
Female gender, acute and late onset of symptoms, predominantly positive symptoms, comorbid mood symptoms, family history of mood disorder, and good premorbid adjustment
Male gender, insidious onset, predominantly negative symptoms, poor premorbid adjustment, and no family history of mood disorder
Early onset in adolescence, primarily cognitive deficits, and chronic course
Male gender, presence of comorbid substance use disorder, and lack of identifiable precipitating factors
Which of the following best describes the typical trajectory of schizophrenia symptoms over the lifespan?
Positive (psychotic) symptoms often decrease with age, whereas negative symptoms and cognitive deficits tend to persist
Negative symptoms and cognitive deficits improve over time, while positive symptoms worsen with age
All symptoms—positive, negative, and cognitive—generally worsen steadily with age
Positive symptoms remain stable, while negative symptoms and cognitive deficits disappear by middle adulthood
Research comparing schizophrenia across countries has found that patients in non-Western developing countries are more likely than those in Western industrialized countries to experience:
Identical trajectories in onset, course, and remission rates compared to Western countries
Later onset of psychotic symptoms and predominantly negative symptoms
Insidious onset, chronic course, and lower rates of remission
Acute onset of symptoms, a shorter course, and higher rates of remission
Which of the following best describes the “immigrant paradox” in schizophrenia and other psychiatric disorders?
Newly arrived immigrants have better mental health outcomes than more acculturated immigrants or US-born individuals of the same ethnicity
Newly arrived immigrants have higher rates of schizophrenia compared to native-born individuals of the same ethnicity
Schizophrenia risk is identical for immigrants regardless of duration of residence or acculturation
Schizophrenia risk is identical for immigrants regardless of duration of residence or acculturation
Which of the following lists includes evidence-based psychosocial interventions for individuals with schizophrenia?
CBTp, deep brain stimulation, cranial electrotherapy, ketamine infusion, aromatherapy
CBTp, hypnosis, motivational interviewing, ACT, light therapy, mindfulness meditation, illness self management
CBTp, cognitive remediation, acceptance and commitment therapy, assertive community treatment, family psychoeducation, illness self-management training, social skills training, supported employment
CBTp, psychoanalysis, exposure therapy, biofeedback, assertiveness training
A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia has failed to respond adequately to two 6-week trials of risperidone and olanzapine at therapeutic doses. He continues to experience persistent hallucinations and delusions. According to APA guidelines, which medication is most appropriate as the next step?
Clozapine
Haloperidol
Aripiprazole
Ziprasidone
A patient with schizophrenia presents predominantly with positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. The clinician decides to start an antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway. Which type of antipsychotic is this patient most likely receiving?
Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic
First-generation (typical) antipsychotic
Partial dopamine agonist
NMDA receptor antagonist
A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on olanzapine. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the primary risks associated with second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs)?
Metabolic syndrome—including weight gain, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance—is a common risk, while serious hematologic effects are rare except for clozapine
High risk of EPS and tardive dyskinesia occurs uniformly across all SGAs
Agranulocytosis is a common risk for all SGAs and requires weekly blood monitoring
Sedation is the only side effect, with minimal metabolic or movement risks
A patient on risperidone is prescribed lorazepam for severe anxiety. Which of the following best describes their interaction?
May increase sedation, dizziness, and fall risk
Lorazepam blocks risperidone metabolism, causing EPS
Risperidone antagonizes lorazepam, reducing anxiolytic efficacy
There are no significant interactions between risperidone and lorazepam
Which program is specifically designed for individuals at high risk for schizophrenia or experiencing their first episode of psychosis, using a multicomponent, team-based approach?
Social Skills Training (SST)
NAVIGATE
Illness Management and Recovery (IMR)
Cognitive Enhancement Therapy (CET)
In the context of NAVIGATE, CBTp techniques are used to:
Help patients restructure maladaptive thoughts, process psychotic episode triggers, and improve coping and resilience
Induce psychotic experiences in a controlled setting to promote insight
Focus solely on negative symptoms while ignoring positive symptoms
Replace antipsychotic medication for first-episode psychosis
A 27-year-old woman presents with persistent delusions and auditory hallucinations for the past 3 weeks. She also reports a major depressive episode lasting most of the same period, including depressed mood, anhedonia, significant sleep disturbance, and marked fatigue. Which of the following best reflects the DSM-5-TR criteria for schizoaffective disorder?
Concurrent major mood episode and active-phase schizophrenia symptoms, with ≥2 weeks of delusions or hallucinations without prominent mood symptoms
Psychotic symptoms occur only during mood episodes, consistent with a mood disorder with psychotic features
Psychotic symptoms and mood episodes occur sequentially, never overlapping, consistent with comorbid schizophrenia and mood disorder.
Major mood episode occurs without any psychotic symptoms, consistent with a primary mood disorder.
Which of the following best reflects the DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for delusional disorder?
Mood episodes with psychotic features occurring exclusively during depressive or manic episodes.
Multiple delusions and hallucinations for ≥6 months, with significant impairment in social and occupational functioning.
Presence of one or more delusions for ≥1 month, with overall functioning not markedly impaired except for the direct impact of the delusion.
Acute onset of delusions lasting <1 month with full return to baseline functioning.
A man believes that his spouse is being unfaithful, but otherwise functions normally at work and socially. Which delusional disorder subtype does this best represent?
Jealous
Grandiose
Erotomanic
Somatic
Which subtype of delusional disorder is characterized by the belief that another person, often of higher status, is in love with the individual?
Erotomanic
Persecutory
Grandiose
Somatic
A 4-year-old child who was raised in multiple foster homes shows minimal social responsiveness to adult caregivers, rarely seeks comfort when distressed, and displays limited positive affect. Which criterion is required for a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of RAD?
A consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers, beginning after age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 12 months, following a period of institutionalization or inconsistent care
A consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers, beginning before age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 9 months, with a history of insufficient care
A consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers, beginning before age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 6 months, with a history of multiple foster placements or disrupted caregiving
A consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers, beginning before age 6, in a child of at least developmental age 9 months, following any period of caregiver neglect or insufficient care
A 4-year-old child who was raised in multiple foster homes approaches unfamiliar adults without hesitation, shows minimal reticence in interactions, and displays overly familiar behavior. Which criterion is required for a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of DSED?
A consistent pattern of overly familiar and indiscriminate social behavior with unfamiliar adults, beginning before age 6, in a child of at least developmental age 9 months, following any period of caregiver neglect or insufficient care
A consistent pattern of overly familiar and indiscriminate social behavior with unfamiliar adults, beginning before age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 6 months, with a history of multiple foster placements or disrupted caregiving
A consistent pattern of overly familiar and indiscriminate social behavior with unfamiliar adults, beginning after age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 12 months, following a period of institutionalization or inconsistent care
A consistent pattern of overly familiar and indiscriminate social behavior with unfamiliar adults, beginning before age 5, in a child of at least developmental age 9 months, with a history of insufficient care
Which of the following correctly describes the duration criteria required for a diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
For adults, adolescents, and children older than 6 years, symptoms must persist for more than 1 month following exposure to a traumatic event.
For all age groups, symptoms lasting 2 weeks are sufficient if distress is severe.
Adults must have symptoms for 6 months, but children can be diagnosed after only a few days of symptoms
For children under 6 years, symptoms lasting 0–1 month are sufficient for PTSD, whereas individuals older than 6 years must have symptoms for at least 1 month.
A clinician is evaluating a client for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). Which of the following sets correctly identifies the four required symptom clusters for diagnosis?
Intrusive memories, emotional numbing, dissociation, and hyperactivity
Re-experiencing, avoidance, depressed mood, and panic attacks
Intrusion symptoms, persistent avoidance of trauma-related stimuli, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and marked alterations in arousal and reactivity
Flashbacks, social withdrawal, anxiety, and sleep disturbance
Which of the following combinations is most strongly associated with an increased risk of developing Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) after exposure to trauma?
High peritraumatic emotional arousal, avoidant coping style, and strong family involvement
Prior trauma exposure, preexisting psychiatric disorder, low social support, and high negative affectivity
Severity of trauma exposure, peritraumatic dissociation, and higher educational attainment
Female gender, unhelpful problem-solving skills, and childhood adversity
Q)Which region of the prefrontal cortex is primarily responsible for top-down inhibitory control of the amygdala, helping regulate fear and emotional responses?
Orbitofrontal cortex (OFC)
Ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC)
Posterior cingulate cortex (PCC)
Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (dlPFC)
Q)A 28-year-old combat veteran with PTSD reports persistent hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, irritability, and sleep difficulties. Neurobiological studies of PTSD indicate which of the following patterns of neurotransmitter activity that contribute to these hyperarousal symptoms?
Increased serotonin and GABA activity; decreased dopamine, norepinephrine, and glutamate activity
Decreased dopamine, glutamate, and norepinephrine; increased serotonin and GABA
Increased dopamine and serotonin; decreased norepinephrine and GABA
Increased dopamine, norepinephrine, and glutamate activity; decreased serotonin and GABA activity
Which of the following correctly describes the diagnostic criteria for Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?
Presence of at least 1 symptom from each PTSD cluster lasting more than 1 month
At least 6 dissociative symptoms occurring within 48 hours of trauma
Nine (or more) symptoms from any of five categories, lasting from 3 days to 1 month after trauma exposure
Re-experiencing and avoidance symptoms lasting less than 2 weeks
Which of the following correctly distinguishes localized amnesia from selective amnesia in Dissociative Amnesia?
Localized amnesia involves forgetting personal identity, whereas selective amnesia involves forgetting specific traumatic events
Localized amnesia is the inability to recall all events during a circumscribed period of time, whereas selective amnesia is the inability to recall some but not all events during that same period.
Localized amnesia occurs only in childhood trauma, while selective amnesia occurs in adulthood trauma.
Localized amnesia reflects neurological damage, whereas selective amnesia reflects psychological causes.
Which of the following lists includes only recognized sleep–wake disorders?
Insomnia disorder, narcolepsy, nightmare disorder, obstructive sleep apnea
Insomnia disorder, narcolepsy, non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder, nightmare disorder
Hypersomnolence disorder, narcolepsy, REM sleep behavior disorder, nightmare disorder
Insomnia disorder, circadian rhythm sleep disorder, sleep terror disorder, nightmare disorder
Narcolepsy is most strongly associated with a deficiency in which of the following?
. Melatonin
Serotonin
Hypocretin
Acetylcholine
Which of the following medication–mechanism combinations is most accurate for the treatment of narcolepsy?
Modafinil — increases dopamine activity
Fluoxetine — increases acetylcholine
Diazepam — enhances GABA
Propranolol — blocks norepinephrine
Sleepwalking and sleep terrors are most likely to
Begin in adolescence and worsen with age
Occur equally across the lifespan
Be most common in childhood and decline with age
Appear only after traumatic experiences
Which of the following features best distinguishes sleep terrors from nightmares?
Occurs more often in males
Presence of vivid dream imagery
Difficulty awakening and amnesia for the episode
Association with anxiety disorders
A child sits up in bed screaming, appears terrified, and pushes parents away when they try to comfort him. The next morning he has no memory of the event. This presentation is most consistent with:
Nightmare disorder
REM sleep behavior disorder
Non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder
Narcolepsy
Sleepwalking and sleep terrors most commonly occur during which of the following?
REM sleep in the last third of the night
NREM slow-wave sleep in the first third of the night
Stage 2 sleep just before REM
REM sleep immediately after sleep onset
Sleep terrors are most likely to occur during
Stages 3 and 4 early in the sleep period
REM sleep late in the night
Stage 1 immediately after falling asleep
Stage 2 throughout the night
