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Chapter 25 Pharm Final Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of a parasite?

a)

A developmental form of a host

b)

A living organism that survives at the expense of another organism, called the host

c)

A type of bacteria that infects the skin

d)

A virus that causes respiratory infections

2.

Which type of parasite mainly affects the digestive tract and other tissues?

a)

Helminths

b)

Ectoparasites

c)

Protozoa

d)

Bacteria

3.

What are the symptoms of untreated giardiasis?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Anorexia, nausea, malaise, weight loss, foul-smelling stools

c)

Skin rashes and itching

d)

Severe headaches and dizziness

4.

What is a possible consequence of untreated Plasmodium falciparum malaria?

a)

Skin irritation

b)

Severe illness or death

c)

Mild headaches

d)

Temporary blindness

5.

Which of the following is a symptom of amebiasis?

a)

Skin rash

b)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, weakness

c)

Joint pain

d)

Blurred vision

6.

What is the main symptom of pediculosis (lice infestation)?

a)

Intense pruritus (itching)

b)

Intestinal obstruction

c)

Pulmonary symptoms

d)

Vaginal burning

7.

Which drug is primarily used to treat both intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Doxycycline

8.

What is the absorption rate of Metronidazole in the GI tract?

a)

80%

b)

60%

c)

50%

d)

90%

9.

Which of the following can cause anemia by blood feeding from intestinal mucosa?

a)

Hookworms

b)

Pinworms

c)

Fish tapeworms

d)

Scabies

10.

What is the half-life of Metronidazole?

a)

6 to 8 hours

b)

3 to 5 hours

c)

10 to 12 hours

d)

1 to 3 hours

11.

What is the primary action of metronidazole on microorganisms?

a)

It enhances cell membrane synthesis.

b)

It diffuses across cell membranes causing cell death.

c)

It inhibits protein synthesis.

d)

It increases cell wall permeability.

12.

Which of the following conditions is metronidazole NOT FDA-approved for prophylaxis?

a)

Intestinal amebiasis

b)

Amebic liver abscess

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Amebiasis prophylaxis

13.

What is a significant warning associated with metronidazole and tinidazole?

a)

They can cause severe allergic reactions.

b)

They have produced carcinogenicity in rats.

c)

They are ineffective against viral infections.

d)

They cause severe liver damage.

14.

Why should metronidazole be used cautiously in patients with abnormal kidney or hepatic function?

a)

It may cause increased metabolism.

b)

It can lead to drug accumulation.

c)

It enhances liver enzyme activity.

d)

It decreases kidney filtration rate.

15.

Which adverse effect is NOT associated with metronidazole?

a)

Headache

b)

Dizziness

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Darkening of urine

16.

What adverse effects may occur when alcohol or alcohol-containing medications are taken with metronidazole?

a)

Increased appetite and energy

b)

Tachycardia, flushing, tingling, nausea, and vomiting

c)

Improved digestion and hydration

d)

Enhanced absorption of nutrients

17.

How should metronidazole be administered to improve absorption?

a)

On an empty stomach

b)

With food

c)

With alcohol

d)

With herbal supplements

18.

What should be monitored to assess the therapeutic effects of metronidazole in intestinal amebiasis?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Decreased abdominal pain and diarrhea

c)

Enhanced energy levels

d)

Improved skin condition

19.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of tinidazole?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Bitter metallic taste and nausea

c)

Enhanced energy levels

d)

Improved skin condition

20.

What is the function of nitazoxanide in treating parasitic infections?

a)

Enhances the immune system

b)

Inhibits growth of Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia duodenalis

c)

Increases nutrient absorption

d)

Reduces inflammation

21.

What is the prototype drug for antimalarials mentioned in the document?

a)

Primaquine

b)

Quinine

c)

Chloroquine phosphate

d)

Mefloquine

22.

Which of the following is a pharmacokinetic property of chloroquine?

a)

Rapidly absorbed in the GI tract

b)

Excreted primarily by the lungs

c)

Peak action in 5 to 7 hours

d)

Not protein bound

23.

Chloroquine is less effective against which resistant strain of malaria?

a)

Plasmodium malariae

b)

Plasmodium ovale

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

d)

Plasmodium vivax

24.

What is one of the actions of chloroquine in treating malaria?

a)

Enhances DNA polymerase activity

b)

Inhibits DNA and RNA polymerase

c)

Decreases internal pH within parasitic acid vesicles

d)

Promotes prostaglandin effects

25.

Which of the following is NOT a use of chloroquine?

a)

Suppresses and prevents malaria

b)

Treats acute malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax

c)

Treats extrainestinal amebiasis

d)

Treats acute malaria caused by Plasmodium ovale

26.

Which of the following is true about the use of chloroquine during pregnancy?

a)

It should not be used during pregnancy.

b)

It increases the risk of adverse fetal effects.

c)

Dosing is different for pregnant and nonpregnant adults.

d)

Dosing is the same for pregnant and nonpregnant adults.

27.

What are some adverse effects of chloroquine?

a)

Increased appetite and weight gain

b)

Visual disturbances and retinal damage

c)

Improved focus and concentration

d)

Enhanced muscle strength

28.

Which condition is a contraindication for chloroquine use?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes

c)

Porphyria

d)

Asthma

29.

What should patients taking chloroquine avoid to prevent decreased drug effectiveness?

a)

Foods that alkalize urine

b)

Foods that acidify urine

c)

Foods high in sugar

d)

Foods low in protein

30.

How can patients improve adherence to chloroquine prophylaxis for malaria?

a)

Taking it at different times each week

b)

Using a calendar to take it on the same day each week

c)

Taking it only when symptoms appear

d)

Doubling the dose every other week

31.

What is a recommended practice when taking chloroquine for malaria treatment?

a)

Take the drug on an empty stomach.

b)

Take the drug at different times each day.

c)

Take the drug with food to reduce stomach upset.

d)

Take the drug only when symptoms appear.

32.

Which drug may increase the plasma concentration of chloroquine?

a)

Magnesium trisilicate

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Cimetidine

d)

Quinine

33.

What should be monitored to assess the therapeutic effects of chloroquine in malaria treatment?

a)

Increase in appetite

b)

Reduction in malaria symptoms

c)

Increase in energy levels

d)

Improvement in sleep patterns

34.

What is the first-line therapy to treat severe malaria according to the analysis by Daly, Minuti, and Khan?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Quinine

c)

Intravenous artesunate

d)

Vitamin C

35.

What condition should healthcare providers screen for before prescribing primaquine?

a)

Vitamin C deficiency

b)

G-6-DP deficiency

c)

Magnesium deficiency

d)

Iron deficiency

36.

What is the primary use of Artemisinin-based Combination Therapies (ACTs)?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To prevent drug resistance in uncomplicated malaria

c)

To cure viral infections

d)

To relieve pain

37.

Which of the following is the only ACT approved by WHO in the US?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Atovaquone

c)

Artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)

d)

Mefloquine

38.

What is a notable side effect of Atovaquone–Proguanil (Malarone)?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Vomiting and diarrhea

c)

Hair loss

d)

Skin rash

39.

Which medication is a derivative of chloroquine with fewer side effects?

a)

Mefloquine

b)

Hydroxychloroquine

c)

Primaquine

d)

Artemether

40.

What is the BLACK BOX WARNING associated with Mefloquine?

a)

Risk of severe allergic reactions

b)

Possible persistent neuropsychiatric effects

c)

Liver damage

d)

Heart failure

41.

What is the primary function of anthelmintics?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To kill or expel parasitic worms

c)

To reduce inflammation

d)

To lower blood pressure

42.

What is the prototype drug mentioned for treating worm infestations?

a)

Albendazole

b)

Mebendazole

c)

Ivermectin

d)

Praziquantel

43.

How is Mebendazole primarily excreted from the body?

a)

Through urine

b)

Through sweat

c)

Through feces

d)

Through saliva

44.

Which of the following infections is NOT treated by Mebendazole?

a)

Pinworm

b)

Whipworm

c)

Malaria

d)

Roundworm

45.

What is a significant adverse effect of Mebendazole?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Dizziness

c)

Weight gain

d)

Insomnia

46.

Why should caution be advised when using Mebendazole during lactation?

a)

It causes high blood pressure

b)

It passes into breast milk

c)

It increases appetite

d)

It causes dehydration

47.

Which condition is a contraindication for the use of mebendazole?

a)

Liver enzyme increases

b)

Hypersensitivity

c)

Anemia

d)

Neutropenia

48.

What should be done to improve the absorption of mebendazole?

a)

Take it on an empty stomach

b)

Take it with food

c)

Avoid taking it with liquids

d)

Take it with dairy products

49.

Which drug increases the effects of mebendazole?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Acetaminophen

50.

What should be monitored to assess for adverse effects of mebendazole?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Liver enzymes (AST, ALT)

c)

Heart rate

d)

Blood sugar levels

51.

How long after treatment should stool samples be obtained to assess for therapeutic effects?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

3 weeks

d)

4 weeks

52.

Which drug is recommended to be taken with a high-fat meal to improve absorption for the treatment of ascariasis?

a)

Triclabendazole

b)

Albendazole

c)

Ivermectin

d)

Aminoquinolines

53.

What is the primary action of permethrin in treating lice or scabies?

a)

Inhibiting protein synthesis in parasites

b)

Blocking sodium ion channels in parasites' nerve cells

c)

Increasing calcium ion concentration in parasites

d)

Disrupting DNA replication in parasites

54.

Which of the following is true about the use of permethrin during pregnancy?

a)

It is not recommended by the CDC.

b)

It is recommended as a treatment of choice for pubic lice and scabies.

c)

It should be avoided due to high systemic absorption.

d)

It is ineffective against lice epidemics.

55.

What is the effect of carbamazepine on mebendazole serum concentration?

a)

Increases concentration

b)

Decreases concentration

c)

No effect

d)

Doubles concentration

56.

What is a contraindication for using permethrin?

a)

Hypersensitivity to chrysanthemums

b)

Age over 2 months

c)

Presence of lice

d)

Scalp numbness

57.

What should be done after applying permethrin for head lice treatment?

a)

Leave on for 10 minutes, then rinse thoroughly with water

b)

Leave on for 8-14 hours, then wash off

c)

Apply only to the face

d)

Reapply immediately if itching occurs

58.

What precaution should be taken when administering permethrin for head lice or scabies?

a)

Wear gloves to prevent spreading the infection

b)

Apply to the face and eyes

c)

Use only on children under 2 months

d)

Leave on for 24 hours

59.

How should cream be applied for scabies treatment?

a)

Apply from head to toe and leave on for 8-14 hours

b)

Apply only to the scalp and leave on for 10 minutes

c)

Apply behind ears and at the base of the neck

d)

Apply only to affected areas and wash off immediately

60.

What is a nursing implication when using permethrin?

a)

Inspect skin areas for signs of inflammation

b)

Apply cream only to the face

c)

Leave cream on for 24 hours

d)

Avoid washing the treated area

61.

What is a second-line treatment for scabies and lice?

a)

Malathion

b)

Pyrethrin

c)

Spinosad

d)

Black Box Warning

62.

What is a significant risk associated with the use of certain antiparasitic drugs, even with correct use?

a)

Skin irritation

b)

Neurologic toxicities

c)

Allergic reactions

d)

Gastrointestinal issues

63.

Which antiparasitic drug is over-the-counter for pediculosis and may require a second application in 7 to 9 days?

a)

Malathion

b)

Pyrethrin

c)

Spinosad

d)

Black Box Warning

64.

What is a general consideration for preventing parasitic infections when traveling to tropical areas?

a)

Avoiding dairy products

b)

Consulting local health departments

c)

Using sunscreen

d)

Drinking bottled water only

65.

Which antiparasitic drug is pediculicidal and ovicidal for head lice and causes paralysis by exciting the parasite CNS?

a)

Malathion

b)

Pyrethrin

c)

Spinosad

d)

Black Box Warning

66.

What should be avoided while taking metronidazole or tinidazole and for 3 days after?

a)

Dairy products

b)

Alcohol

c)

Caffeine

d)

Spicy foods

67.

What is recommended for malaria prophylaxis with chloroquine?

a)

Take medication daily

b)

Take medication at the same time weekly

c)

Take medication only when symptoms appear

d)

Take medication every other day

68.

What should be done if diarrhea occurs while taking medication?

a)

Fast for 24 hours

b)

Eat large meals

c)

Eat small frequent meals and stay well hydrated

d)

Avoid all liquids

69.

How often should bed linens be washed in the case of a pinworm infection?

a)

Weekly

b)

Every other day

c)

Daily

d)

Monthly

70.

What should be done after applying permethrin cream, lotion, or rinse?

a)

Avoid washing the area for a week

b)

Report any stinging, tingling, numbness, rash, or itching to your prescriber

c)

Cover the area with a bandage

d)

Expose the area to sunlight