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Exercise Physiology Quiz

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary immediate defense against hypoglycemia during prolonged exercise in healthy individuals is:

a)

Increased renal glucose excretion

b)

Increased insulin secretion

c)

Increased glucose production via glucagon and catecholamines

d)

Reduced hepatic glucose output

2.

Cortisol’s acute metabolic role during prolonged exercise is best described as:

a)

Promoting glycogen synthesis in muscle

b)

Supporting gluconeogenesis and mobilization of amino acids and FFAs

c)

Directly increasing muscle protein synthesis

d)

Blocking hepatic glucose output

3.

Which change would most increase the rate of force development (RFD) in a ballistic contraction, assuming muscle size is unchanged?

a)

Lower Ca2+ sensitivity of troponin

b)

Lower motor unit recruitment thresholds

c)

Lower tendon stiffness

d)

Higher motor unit firing rates

4.

The Gastrocnemius performs which two actions?

a)

Hip flexion / dorsiflexion

b)

Knee extension / plantarflexion

c)

Knee flexion / plantarflexion

d)

Hip extension / knee flexion

5.

Compared with ligaments, tendons typically have a higher proportion of:

a)

Type II collagen for compressive load tolerance

b)

Type I collagen aligned in the direction of force transmission

c)

Ground substance that dominates tensile behavior

d)

Elastin arranged randomly

6.

As muscle contraction intensity increases toward maximal, the relative contribution typically shifts toward:

a)

Only reflex activity with no voluntary drive

b)

Only synchronization with no firing rate changes

c)

More motor unit recruitment early, then greater reliance on rate coding to further increase force

d)

Less recruitment and less rate coding

7.

This hormone plays a role in minimizing the extent of water loss during heavy sweating and hard exercise:

a)

Insulin

b)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Calcitonin

8.

The increase in a-vO2 difference during incremental exercise is primarily due to:

a)

Reduced capillary density

b)

Lower arterial O2 content

c)

Reduced hemoglobin concentration

d)

Greater O2 extraction by working muscles (lower venous O2 content)

9.

Rate coding contributes to force production primarily by:

a)

Increasing muscle temperature

b)

Increasing sarcomere length

c)

Temporal summation leading to unfused/fused tetanus

d)

Increasing the number of recruited motor units

10.

Viscoelastic 'creep' refers to:

a)

Decreasing stress over time under constant strain

b)

Increasing strain over time under constant stress

c)

Elastic rebound after unloading

d)

A sudden increase in stiffness at high strain rates

11.

Compared with a parallel-fiber muscle of equal volume, a highly pennate muscle typically has:

a)

Higher maximal force and higher maximal shortening velocity

b)

Lower maximal force and higher maximal shortening velocity

c)

Lower maximal force and lower maximal shortening velocity

d)

Higher maximal force and lower maximal shortening velocity

12.

A progressive rise in core temperature during exercise in the heat is most likely to cause:

a)

Decreased skin blood flow

b)

Reduced heart rate at fixed workload

c)

Increased sweating and cutaneous vasodilation

d)

Increased plasma volume

13.

Which protein gives Type I fibers their red appearance?

a)

Actin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Myosin

d)

Myoglobin

14.

Which muscle group is responsible for extending the knee during takeoff?

a)

Abductors

b)

Adductors

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Quadriceps

15.

Which metabolic pathway is primarily responsible for producing glucose from lactate during recovery?

a)

Pentose phosphate pathway

b)

Cori cycle (hepatic gluconeogenesis)

c)

Ketogenesis

d)

Glycogenolysis

16.

Which characteristic is most associated with Type I muscle fibers?

a)

High glycolytic capacity

b)

Low myoglobin levels

c)

High peak power

d)

High oxidative capacity

17.

Ballistic and high power movements use what type of recruitment strategy?

a)

Inhibit slow-twitch MU

b)

Slow-twitch MU predominance

c)

Recruit slow MU then fast MU

d)

Recruit fast MU then slow MU

18.

During steady-state submaximal exercise, mean arterial pressure (MAP) typically:

a)

Falls to the level of diastolic pressure

b)

Decreases substantially due to vasodilation

c)

Increases modestly because systolic pressure rises significantly while diastolic pressure is stable or drops slightly.

d)

Remains unchanged because cardiac output and total peripheral resistance do not change

19.

Failure point is the:

a)

Stress at which plastic deformation begins

b)

Strain at which stiffness is maximal

c)

Maximum stress reached on the stress–strain curve before failure

d)

Stress where the toe region ends

20.

If ventilation increases disproportionately to VO2 during incremental exercise, this most directly reflects:

a)

A decrease in chemoreceptor sensitivity

b)

Increased buffering of H+ producing additional CO2 and stimulating ventilation

c)

A sudden drop in arterial O2 content at low workloads

d)

A reduced need to eliminate CO2

21.

In the cross-bridge cycle, what is the immediate effect of ATP binding to myosin?

a)

Myosin binds strongly to actin

b)

Myosin performs the power stroke

c)

Troponin releases Ca2+

d)

Myosin detaches from actin

22.

Which event directly allows myosin heads to bind to actin during excitation–contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?

a)

ATP binding to myosin causing power stroke

b)

Ca2+ binding to troponin C shifting tropomyosin

c)

ADP release from myosin exposing actin sites

d)

Pi binding to actin increasing affinity

23.

As jump intensity increases from submaximal to maximal, recruitment proceeds:

a)

From Type II to Type I

b)

Simultaneously

c)

Randomly

d)

From Type I to Type II

24.

Which fiber type has the greatest resistance to fatigue?

a)

Type IIa

b)

Type IIx

c)

Type IIb

d)

Type I

25.

Glycogen depletion during prolonged exercise most strongly contributes to fatigue by:

a)

Blocking lipolysis in adipose tissue

b)

Reducing muscle and live glycogen ability to resynthesize ATP

c)

Preventing oxygen from binding hemoglobin

d)

Increasing blood pH

26.

The acute rise in epinephrine during exercise primarily promotes:

a)

Suppression of heart rate

b)

Increased insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells

c)

Hepatic glycogenolysis and adipose lipolysis

d)

Increased muscle glucose uptake independent of GLUT4

27.

Which hormone is most directly responsible for counter-regulation of falling blood glucose during prolonged exercise?

a)

Leptin

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Glucagon

d)

Calcitonin

28.

Load relaxation refers to:

a)

A reduction in ultimate tensile strength

b)

Increasing strain over time under constant stress

c)

Decreasing stress over time under constant strain

d)

Increasing stiffness with repeated loading

29.

The fast component of EPOC is most closely related to:

a)

Long-term increases in mitochondrial enzymes

b)

Muscle fiber hypertrophy

c)

Resynthesis of phosphocreatine and re-oxygenation of myoglobin/hemoglobin

d)

Glycogen supercompensation

30.

For two muscles producing the same joint torque, the muscle with greater physiological cross-sectional area (PCSA) generally has what characteristic?

a)

Lower metabolic cost at any force

b)

Higher absolute tendon strain at a given force

c)

Greater maximal shortening velocity

d)

Greater maximal force capacity

31.

What chemical changes are associated with vasodialation in active skeletal muscle during exercise?

a)

Increased H+ & CO2

b)

Decreased nitric oxide

c)

Endothelin-1

d)

Increased pH

32.

Exercise-associated hyponatremia is most commonly caused by what?

a)

Too little sweating

b)

Excessive intake of hypotonic fluid relative to sodium loss

c)

High altitude exposure

d)

Too much sodium intake

33.

A decrease in mitochondrial coupling efficiency during exercise most directly implies what?

a)

Less O2 consumption for the same ATP production

b)

Complete inhibition of the TCA cycle

c)

More O2 consumption for the same ATP production due to proton leak

d)

More ATP produced per NADH oxidized

34.

What is the primary cause of fatigue in Type IIx fibers during brief, high-intensity exercise?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Oxygen depletion

c)

Glycogen depletion

d)

Accumulation of metabolic byproducts

35.

What happens to force production as motor unit firing frequency increases?

a)

It fluctuates randomly

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases (Summation)

d)

It remains constant

36.

Which fiber type is most likely to be recruited during a 1-RM?

a)

Type IIx only

b)

All fibers

c)

Type 1 only

d)

Type IIa only

37.

Compared with low-threshold motor units, high-threshold motor units generally have what characteristics?

a)

Lower recruitment thresholds and slower twitch characteristics

b)

Higher recruitment thresholds and faster, more forceful twitch characteristics

c)

Greater fatigue resistance

d)

Lower firing rates at a given force

38.

If sarcomere length is increased beyond optimal on the descending limb, maximal isometric force decreases primarily because of what?

a)

Motor neuron firing rate decreases

b)

Titin stiffness decreases

c)

Myosin ATPase activity slows

d)

Actin–myosin overlap decreases

39.

How is 'Rate Coding' defined in neuromuscular physiology?

a)

The speed of neural conduction

b)

The frequency of motor unit firing

c)

The number of muscle fibers per neuron

d)

The thickness of the myelin sheath

40.

At the same absolute workload, endurance-trained individuals generally exhibit a lower RER because of:

a)

Reduced capillary density

b)

Greater fat oxidation and reduced carbohydrate reliance

c)

Higher reliance on amino acid oxidation

d)

Lower mitochondrial content

41.

According to the Fick principle, whole-body VO2 equals:

a)

HR × SV

b)

Q × (CaO2 − CvO2)

c)

MAP ÷ TPR

d)

SV ÷ HR

42.

The 'crossover concept' in exercise metabolism refers to:

a)

Switching from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism at VO2max

b)

The transition from type I to type II fiber recruitment only

c)

A shift from predominantly fat oxidation to predominantly carbohydrate oxidation with increasing intensity

d)

The point at which lactate equals pyruvate concentration

43.

Lactate threshold is typically expressed as:

a)

The percentage of maximal oxygen uptake at the intensity or workload it occurs.

b)

Individuals maximal oxygen uptake

c)

Plateau in the rise in oxygen uptake during exercise

d)

The workload when RER is >1.0

44.

A key reason stroke volume can plateau at higher intensities is:

a)

Increased preload time due to longer diastole

b)

Reduced ventricular filling time from high HR (shortened diastole)

c)

Reduced venous return from muscle pump

d)

Elimination of sympathetic inotropy

45.

Hysteresis in a loading–unloading cycle indicates:

a)

Energy loss as heat (area between loading and unloading curves)

b)

No dependence on loading rate

c)

Higher Young’s modulus

d)

Increased energy storage

46.

The primary mechanism for increased venous return during rhythmic dynamic exercise is:

a)

Reduced skeletal muscle pump

b)

Decreased sympathetic venoconstriction

c)

Increased blood viscosity

d)

Skeletal muscle pump and respiratory pump

47.

In the creatine kinase reaction (PCr + ADP + H+ ↔ Cr + ATP), an accumulation of H+ during intense exercise tends to shift the equilibrium in which direction?

a)

Toward Cr + ADP

b)

Toward ATP production

c)

Toward PCr resynthesis

d)

No effect; H+ is not involved

48.

Total energy yield of ATP from oxidation of carbohydrate can be:

a)

32 ATP

b)

5-6 ATP

c)

22 -24 ATP

d)

3 ATP

49.

What is the single best explanation for why RER can exceed 1.0 during severe exercise?

a)

Increased protein oxidation elevates CO2

b)

O2 uptake is capped, forcing anaerobic CO2 release from lactate

c)

Bicarbonate buffering of H+ generates additional CO2 independent of mitochondrial oxidation

d)

Fat oxidation produces more CO2 than O2 consumed

50.

At maximal exercise, the largest contributor to increased cardiac output in untrained individuals is typically:

a)

Equal increases in HR and SV across all intensities

b)

Reduced preload

c)

Increased stroke volume only

d)

Increased heart rate only

51.

The metabolic "sweet spot" for training is:

a)

Lactate begins to accumulate significantly

b)

RER equals 0.85 exactly

c)

Where the body burns the highest amount of fat for fuel while preserving CHO

d)

Total fat mass decreases fastest

52.

During fatigue at a constant force output, the CNS typically compensates by:

a)

Decreasing recruitment to conserve ATP

b)

Increasing neural drive: higher firing rates and/or additional motor unit recruitment

c)

Eliminating rate coding to prevent tetanus

d)

Reducing antagonist co-contraction only

53.

Which fuel sources contributes relatively little to energy production

a)

fat

b)

protein

c)

CHO

d)

All contribute equally

54.

An electrical signal that triggers muscle contraction is:

a)

ACh

b)

Calcium

c)

Action Potential

d)

None of the above

55.

Which structural protein primarily contributes to passive tension when a relaxed sarcomere is stretched?

a)

Nebulin

b)

Troponin I

c)

Titin

d)

Desmin

56.

What determines the muscle fiber type of a specific motor unit?

a)

The joint angle

b)

The blood flow

c)

The alpha motor neuron

d)

The load applied

57.

Which second messenger is most directly increased by beta-adrenergic receptor activation in muscle and liver?

a)

cAMP

b)

IP3

c)

cGMP

d)

NADPH

58.

During repeated high-intensity contractions, extracellular K+ can rise. The immediate functional consequence most associated with this is:

a)

Increased myosin ATPase activity

b)

Reduced action potential propagation and force production

c)

Increased calcium sensitivity of troponin

d)

Improved membrane excitability indefinitely

59.

The 'toe region' of a tendon stress–strain curve primarily reflects:

a)

Uncrimping and alignment of collagen fibers

b)

Irreversible microfailure of collagen

c)

Viscous damping due to fluid flow only

d)

Maximum stiffness of aligned collagen

60.

During high-intensity exercise, what is the primary immediate buffer of ATP concentration in skeletal muscle?

a)

Hepatic gluconeogenesis

b)

Anaerobic glycolysis via lactate dehydrogenase

c)

Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Phosphocreatine via the creatine kinase reaction

61.

A vertical jump occurs primarily in which anatomical plane?

a)

Frontal

b)

Transverse

c)

Horizontal

d)

Sagittal

62.

According to the 'Size Principle,' which motor units are recruited first?

a)

Small, low-threshold units

b)

Large, high-threshold units

c)

Fast-fatigable units

d)

Intermediate units

63.

Which muscle is the primary agonist for hip extension during a vertical jump?

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Rectus femoris

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Gluteus maximus

64.

Cardiovascular drift during prolonged exercise in the heat is characterized by:

a)

Increasing HR and decreasing SV at a constant workload

b)

Increasing SV and Q with stable HR

c)

Decreasing HR and increasing SV

d)

No change in HR or SV

65.

Which fiber type has a high threshold of excitation?

a)

Type IIx

b)

Type I

c)

Slow-twitch

d)

Small motor units

66.

During heavy exercise, the largest immediate source of metabolic acidosis in muscle is best attributed to:

a)

Urea cycle activation

b)

ATP hydrolysis and associated reactions increasing H+ availability

c)

Lactate directly releasing H+

d)

Ketone body production