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Worksheets

Neurological & Digestive Review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Eating a diet high in calcium will improve the health of one's bones, teeth, and nervous system as well as:

a)

heal damaged tissue.

b)

aid in blood clotting.

c)

produce energy.

d)

store fat.

2.

People who contract this viral infection are often unaware of symptoms and may become chronic carriers. What is the name of this asymptomatic disorder?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

3.

What role do saliva and digestive enzymes play in breaking down food?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

absorption of nutrients

c)

chemical digestion

d)

physical digestion

4.

Which is a primary structure of the digestive system?

a)

salivary gland

b)

gall bladder

c)

esophagus

d)

tongue

5.

Runners who eat pancakes and pasta before a race choose these foods because these foods provide extra energy from:

a)

carbohydrates.

b)

folic acid.

c)

proteins.

d)

iron.

6.

Which are the primary structures of the gastrointestinal tract that food passes through during the digestion process?

a)

larynx, stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, rectum

b)

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon

c)

esophagus, stomach, liver, small intestine, rectum

d)

pharynx, trachea, stomach, small intestine, colon

7.

Which structure is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a)

esophagus

b)

gallbladder

c)

mouth

d)

rectum

8.

Weston feels an increase in stress related to completing graduation requirements and preparing for final exams. He could be at risk for developing:

a)

a peptic ulcer.

b)

constipation.

c)

cirrhosis.

d)

diarrhea.

9.

Weston presented in the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea after eating a meal that was high in fat. His symptoms indicate which most likely diagnosis?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

10.

The digestive organ responsible for absorption of nutrients is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

11.

The digestive prefix chole- means:

a)

bile.

b)

colon.

c)

cyst.

d)

green.

12.

How is chyme different from a bolus?

a)

A bolus moves through the digestive tract by peristalsis.

b)

A bolus is produced by chemical digestion.

c)

Chyme is acted on by enzymes.

d)

Chyme is a liquid.

13.

Which structure is located within the large intestine?

a)

descending colon

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

d)

ileum

14.

The teeth and tongue contribute to which function of the digestive system?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

physical breakdown of food

c)

chemical digestion of food

d)

absorption of nutrients

15.

Ashton experiences pain and burning in the epigastric region when laying flat in bed after eating a meal. Ashton's condition improves when the head of the bed is raised. Ashton's most likely diagnosis is:

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis B

16.

The term gastro means:

a)

esophagus.

b)

gums.

c)

stomach.

d)

tongue.

17.

The term hepat means:

a)

bile.

b)

blood.

c)

liver.

d)

yellow.

18.

Food must be mechanically broken down in the buccal cavity before being swallowed. Teeth are responsible for tearing and grinding food. Which organ aids in both chewing and swallowing the bolus once formed?

a)

esophagus

b)

gingiva

c)

tongue

d)

uvula

19.

Faith routinely takes ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication for minor aches and pains. She begins experiencing epigastric pain between meals and early in the morning. Her doctor explains that she has developed a sore in the lining of her stomach. What is Faith’s most likely diagnosis?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

hiatal hernia

d)

peptic ulcer

20.

The digestive organ responsible for elimination of waste is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

21.

Water absorption, bacterial action, fecal formation, and defecation are all functions of the:

a)

small intestine.

b)

large intestine.

c)

stomach.

d)

liver.

22.

The digestive disorder that may occur if a person abuses alcohol or Tylenol is:

a)

cirrhosis.

b)

constipation.

c)

diarrhea.

d)

ulcers.

23.

The medical prefix enter means:

a)

esophagus.

b)

intestine.

c)

sphincter.

d)

stomach.

24.

Which condition is characterized by constipation or diarrhea, abdominal pain, and gas or bloating?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

peptic ulcer

c)

hepatitis

d)

cirrhosis

25.

Enzymes are necessary to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to be used by the body. The feather-shaped organ that produces digestive enzymes and empties them into the duodenum to continue the chemical breakdown of food is the:

a)

salivary gland.

b)

gallbladder.

c)

pancreas.

d)

liver.

26.

Which digestive structure is responsible for the physical breakdown of food?

a)

salivary glands

b)

large intestine

c)

pharynx

d)

teeth

27.

After digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is completed, absorption of nutrients occurs in the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

stomach.

d)

liver.

28.

The substance that is produced by the liver and aids in the digestion of fat is:

a)

bile.

b)

glycogen.

c)

insulin.

d)

ptyalin.

29.

The digestive system is also known as the:

a)

nutrient absorption system.

b)

alimentary canal.

c)

elimination canal.

d)

intestinal tract.

30.

Which part of the nerve cell is specially constructed to transmit a message from one cell to another nerve cell?

a)

myelin sheath

b)

dendrite

c)

neuron

d)

axon

31.

Trey has symptoms of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. At the doctor's office, Trey had a lumbar puncture. His doctor is concerned Trey may have which disorder?

a)

hydroencephalitis

b)

cerebral palsy

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

32.

Impulses enter the neuron by way of the:

a)

myelin sheath.

b)

dendrite.

c)

synapse.

d)

axon.

33.

Kaleb was involved in an ATV accident and sustained a severe injury to the brain and spinal cord. The medical staff at the trauma center understands this injury may cause which substance to leak into surrounding tissues?

a)

cerebrospinal fluid

b)

synovial fluid

c)

chyme

d)

bile

34.

Which neurons carry messages from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands?

a)

nerve impulse neurons

b)

associative neurons

c)

sensory neurons

d)

motor neurons

35.

Jamie experienced tachycardia and dry mouth while getting off a fast roller-coaster ride. Which nervous system structures were most likely activated?

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

cerebral ventricles

36.

A patient sustains a fall while getting out of the shower. Tests reveal damage to the inner most meningeal layer. What structure was damaged?

a)

dura mater

b)

arachnoid

c)

ventricles

d)

pia mater

37.

Joe experienced hallucinations, seizures, and temporary loss of consciousness. An EEG test showed uncontrolled electrical activity of neurons in Joe's brain. Which disorder was Joe most likely diagnosed with?

a)

epilepsy

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

meningitis

d)

neuritis

38.

Melissa fell off a horse and was paralyzed as a result of significant injury to her spinal cord. Which component of Melissa's nervous system is damaged?

a)

autonomic

b)

central

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

39.

Anna is recovering from a fight with Arianne. Anna's breathing is slowing down, her pulse is slowing, and she is fatigued. What part of the nervous system is responsible for these changes?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

cranial nerves

c)

spinal nerves

d)

sympathetic

40.

A nerve cell is known as a/an:

a)

neuroblast.

b)

neurocyte.

c)

neuroma.

d)

neuron.

41.

Which lobe of the brain coordinates voluntary muscle movement?

a)

frontal

b)

occipital

c)

parietal

d)

temporal

42.

Planning, recalling information, and decision-making are all functions of the:

a)

hypothalamus.

b)

cerebellum.

c)

brain stem.

d)

cerebrum.

43.

Melissa sustained an injury while riding her horse. She experienced tingling and burning sensations on her lower extremities. What part of her nervous system was damaged?

a)

autonomic

b)

central

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

44.

Maria is a 25-year-old female and is experiencing numbness and weakness in her legs. She also feels tingling in her hands. She is always extremely tired and often feels dizzy. The doctor is certain that she has a chronic inflammatory disease of the central nervous system. What is her probable diagnosis?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

45.

Mr. Smith is 78-years-old and has begun having tremors and gait shuffling. His family is worried that he may be developing:

a)

Alzheimer’s disease.

b)

Parkinson’s disease.

c)

multiple sclerosis.

d)

cerebral palsy.

46.

A diver sustained a spinal cord injury just below the tenth thoracic vertebra and is now unable to use his legs. This condition is known as:

a)

hemiplegia.

b)

paraplegia.

c)

paresthesia.

d)

quadriplegia.

47.

In a nerve impulse, messages travel from one neuron to another by way of which sequence?

a)

axon → myelin sheath → dendrite

b)

dendrite → myelin sheath → axon

c)

axon → synapse → dendrite

d)

dendrite → synapse → axon

48.

The brain and the spinal cord are part of the:

a)

autonomic nervous system.

b)

peripheral nervous system.

c)

central nervous system.

d)

cranial nerve.

49.

The part of the brain located below the cerebrum is the:

a)

cerebellum.

b)

diencephalon.

c)

hypothalamus.

d)

thalamus.

50.

Michael got into a fight with Andre over his girlfriend. Michael’s heart rate increased, his palms got sweaty, and he felt a surge of energy. What part of the nervous system was responsible for these changes?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

cranial nerves

c)

spinal nerves

d)

sympathetic

51.

Luke is driving home one evening when two deer run out of the woods in front of his car. Luke slams on the brakes to avoid hitting the deer. Luke feels his heart rate increase and his hands become very sweaty. Which part of the autonomic nervous system has been activated?

a)

central

b)

parasympathetic

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

52.

Dr. Brown is checking Ashley’s patellar tendon reflex. What part of the nervous system is Dr. Brown assessing?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

cranial nerves

c)

spinal nerves

d)

sympathetic

53.

Liz has trouble with appetite control, temperature regulation, and maintaining a healthy weight. Which area of the brain is affected?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

cerebrum

54.

A patient is seen in an urgent care office for an insect bite he suffered one week ago. The patient is experiencing a headache and stiff neck. The doctor immediately sent him for laboratory testing. Which disorder is the doctor concerned about?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

West Nile virus

c)

malaria

d)

polio

55.

Sarah fell while rock climbing and struck the ground. She is experiencing respiratory distress and is unable to move. Sarah's doctor will most likely diagnose her with which condition?

a)

myasthenia gravis

b)

spinal cord injury

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

poliomyelitis

56.

Jim sustained significant brain damage to the middle meningeal layer. Which layer of the brain was damaged?

a)

arachnoid

b)

pia mater

c)

ventricles

d)

dura mater

57.

Impulses travel from one neuron to another by way of the:

a)

myelin sheath.

b)

dendrite.

c)

synapse.

d)

axon.

58.

A 35-year-old female patient sees her doctor with complaints of weakness in the extremities, double vision, and difficulty speaking. She states that some days the symptoms are worse than others. Which disorder may the doctor suspect?

a)

poliomyelitis

b)

West Nile virus

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

spinal cord injury

59.

Petey has a below-the-knee amputation. He reaches to scratch his removed foot. Petey is experiencing:

a)

phantom pain.

b)

dermal pain.

c)

psoriasis.

d)

urticaria.

60.

Which area of the brain contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata?

a)

diencephalon

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

cerebrum

61.

Laura is upset with the progression of her mother’s memory loss. The family first noticed that she was very confused and often made poor decisions. They slowly watched these symptoms progress to an inability to recognize people. What is the most likely diagnosis for Laura’s mother?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

multiple sclerosis

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

62.

The membrane covering of the brain is known as the:

a)

cerebral aqueduct.

b)

choroid plexus.

c)

meninges.

d)

ventricles.

63.

What portion of the brain stem controls heartbeat and respiration?

a)

diencephalon

b)

hypothalamus

c)

medulla

d)

pons

64.

Which phrase best describes the dura mater meningeal layer?

a)

cerebrospinal fluid that acts as a liquid shock absorber

b)

delicate innermost layer that clings to the brain

c)

tough, durable outer membrane

d)

cobweb-like middle membrane