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Patient Preparation and History

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which patient history detail most directly assists with menstrual cycle dating in pelvic sonography?

a)

Date of last menstrual period

b)

Gravidity and live birth count

c)

Current hormone replacement plan

d)

Prior pelvic surgical history

2.

For a 28-year-old presenting with pelvic pain, which combination of history elements is MOST critical to guide a targeted pelvic ultrasound?

a)

Last menstrual period timing

b)

Current pelvic symptoms

c)

Family history of ovarian cancer

d)

Number of prior pregnancies and births

e)

Recent Pap smear laboratory results

3.

Gravidity and parity are obtained during preparation because they primarily inform which aspect of pelvic sonography interpretation?

a)

Reproductive history and uterine changes

b)

Medication adherence over months

c)

Risk of immediate hemodynamic collapse

d)

Likelihood of urinary tract anomalies

4.

A patient had a hysterectomy two years ago. Which history element becomes most important to avoid misinterpretation of absent uterine structures?

a)

Past pelvic surgeries

b)

Family cancer risks

c)

Recent biopsy results

d)

Parity documentation

5.

During intake for pelvic sonography, which findings should be documented to correlate with imaging and guide differential diagnosis?

a)

Pelvic examination observations

b)

Current symptoms description

c)

Gravidity and parity counts

d)

Family cancer history

e)

Blood pressure thresholds

6.

Family history is obtained before pelvic ultrasound primarily to assess which consideration?

a)

Genetic risk for gynecologic cancers

b)

Immediate need for IV hydration

c)

Probability of bowel obstruction

d)

Suitability for contrast agents

7.

On ultrasound, how do the rectus abdominis muscles most typically appear in the anterior abdominal wall?

a)

Hypoechoic bands with echogenic striations

b)

Anechoic tubes without internal echoes

c)

Uniformly echogenic slabs with shadowing

d)

Heterogeneous masses with posterior enhancement

8.

Which statement best describes the rectus abdominis muscles in relation to abdominal wall anatomy?

a)

Paired parasagittal straps inserting on pubic rami

b)

Single midline sheet attaching to iliac crests

c)

Oblique paired bands inserting on xiphoid alone

d)

Transverse sheet spanning from ribs to sacrum

9.

What is the primary sonographic role of the rectus sheath in abdominal wall imaging?

a)

Bright linear reflector separating muscle from fat and bowel

b)

Low-level echo region enhancing bowel visualization

c)

Anechoic plane indicating intraperitoneal free fluid

d)

Diffuse echogenic band causing acoustic shadowing

10.

In a transabdominal pelvic ultrasound at the level of the vagina and cervix, which structure is typically seen as hypoechoic, ovoid, and located at the posterolateral corners of the bladder?

a)

Obturator internus muscle

b)

Psoas major muscle

c)

Iliacus muscle belly

d)

Gluteus medius muscle

11.

Which statement best describes the sonographic appearance and surrounding structures of the obturator internus muscle in the true pelvis?

a)

Hypoechoic ovoid muscle surrounded by obturator fascia

b)

Hyperechoic linear tendon deep to transversalis fascia

c)

Isoechoic triangular muscle covered by thoracolumbar fascia

d)

Heterogeneous round mass adjacent to inguinal ligament

12.

On the provided ultrasound image, the obturator internus lies in which relative location with respect to the urinary bladder?

a)

Posterolateral to the bladder

b)

Anterosuperior to the bladder

c)

Directly posterior to the bladder

d)

Medial within the bladder lumen

13.

Which group of structures are commonly identified within the true (lesser) pelvis in ultrasound at this level?

a)

Urinary bladder

b)

Reproductive organs

c)

Levator ani muscles

d)

Obturator internus muscles

e)

Descending colon

14.

When scanning at the level of the cervix, which feature helps distinguish the obturator internus from adjacent pelvic floor muscles?

a)

Ovoid hypoechoic shape abutting bladder corner

b)

Bright echogenic linear fibers midline

c)

Striated hyperechoic texture anteriorly

d)

Cystic round structure with posterior enhancement

15.

Which pairing correctly matches the labeled structures commonly seen together on the image at this level?

a)

B with bladder

b)

U with uterus

c)

R with rectum

d)

LA with levator ani

e)

OI with obturator internus

16.

Which statement about pelvic anatomy visualization is most accurate for identifying obturator internus during sonography?

a)

Seen at posterolateral bladder corners near cervix

b)

Best seen anterior to pubic symphysis superiorly

c)

Identified as echogenic fascia within perineum

d)

Visualized within abdominal wall lateral to iliac crest

17.

In pelvic ultrasound, which technique best visualizes the levator ani muscle as indicated by the arrows in the diagram?

a)

Transverse plane with caudal angulation

b)

Transverse plane with cephalic angulation

c)

Sagittal plane with neutral angulation

d)

Coronal plane with cranial angulation

18.

When aiming to image the most inferior pelvic floor level, how should the transducer be oriented?

a)

Transverse with slight caudal tilt

b)

Transverse with slight cranial tilt

c)

Sagittal with neutral alignment

d)

Coronal with lateral sweeping

19.

Why are the coccygeus and piriformis muscles not routinely distinguished on standard pelvic sonography?

a)

They lie deep and blend with surrounding muscles

b)

They move too rapidly to capture clearly

c)

They are avascular and produce shadowing

d)

They are superficial and overgain causes dropout

20.

All of the following muscles are commonly considered part of the pelvic floor except:

a)

Levator ani

b)

Coccygeus

c)

Puborectalis

d)

Rectus abdominis

21.

During a pelvis scan, you fail to visualize coccygeus clearly. Which adjustment is LEAST likely to help?

a)

Increase cranial angulation to seek deeper posterior level

b)

Use transverse plane with mild caudal tilt for levator ani

c)

Recognize limitation that coccygeus is not routinely seen

d)

Optimize depth and gain for posterior pelvis

22.

In the ultrasound image labeled “Iliacus Muscle,” which relationship is correct about the iliacus at the superior two thirds of the iliac fossa?

a)

It arises anterior to psoas major

b)

It arises posterior to psoas major

c)

It inserts on the greater trochanter

d)

It is isolated from psoas major fascia

23.

Which statement best describes the iliopsoas muscle as visualized in the pelvis on ultrasound?

a)

It is the iliacus and psoas major combined

b)

It is the psoas minor and iliacus only

c)

It is the sartorius and iliacus complex

d)

It is the tensor fasciae latae and psoas

24.

Where does the iliopsoas tendon insert after coursing anterolaterally in the caudal direction?

a)

Lesser trochanter of femur

b)

Greater trochanter of femur

c)

Anterior superior iliac spine

d)

Pubic symphysis

25.

On a transverse pelvic ultrasound, a hypoechoic band deep to the iliac fossa fascia is labeled with arrows. Which identification is most accurate?

a)

Gluteus medius muscle belly

b)

Iliacus muscle belly

c)

Obturator internus muscle

d)

Quadratus lumborum muscle

26.

Select all accurate statements about the iliacus and iliopsoas complex.

a)

Iliacus is contiguous with psoas major

b)

The combined muscle continues caudally into the pelvis

c)

The combined muscle courses posteromedially to the acetabulum

d)

Insertion occurs on the lesser trochanter

27.

A sonographer scanning the greater pelvis expects the iliopsoas to appear as:

a)

A combined fusiform structure from iliacus and psoas major

b)

A thin echogenic line superficial to abdominal wall

c)

A round vascular structure lateral to femoral vein

d)

An isolated psoas major without iliacus contribution

28.

Which component is explicitly part of the iliopsoas muscle complex?

a)

Psoas major

b)

Gluteus minimus

c)

Rectus femoris

d)

Adductor magnus

29.

Which arteries primarily supply blood to the uterus?

a)

Uterine and vaginal arteries

b)

Ovarian and renal arteries

c)

Internal pudendal only

d)

Common iliac branches

30.

Which vessels provide arterial blood to the ovaries?

a)

Ovarian arteries from the aorta

b)

Branches of the uterine artery

c)

Internal pudendal branches

d)

Superior mesenteric branches

31.

The ovarian arteries arise directly from which major vessel?

a)

Abdominal aorta

b)

External iliac artery

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Common hepatic artery

32.

In color Doppler evaluation of pelvic vessels, what is the key benefit of color mapping?

a)

Localizes the vessel for precise sample placement

b)

Increases grayscale contrast resolution

c)

Eliminates need for spectral analysis

d)

Measures blood pressure noninvasively

33.

2D imaging of pelvic vascularity is primarily used to do which of the following?

a)

Provide anatomic context for Doppler assessment

b)

Directly measure flow velocities in vessels

c)

Calculate resistive and pulsatility indices

d)

Quantify cardiac output in uterine arteries

34.

Which statement best describes the S/D ratio in Doppler waveform analysis?

a)

Peak systolic divided by end diastolic

b)

End diastolic divided by mean velocity

c)

Peak systolic minus end diastolic

d)

Mean velocity divided by peak systolic

35.

The Pourcelot resistive index (RI) is calculated using which formula?

a)

(A − B) / A

b)

A / B

c)

(A − B) / mean

d)

B / A

36.

The pulsatility index (PI) is defined as which of the following?

a)

(A − B) / mean velocity

b)

A / mean velocity

c)

(A + B) / mean velocity

d)

B − A over mean velocity

37.

When placing a spectral Doppler sample gate in a pelvic vessel, which practice optimizes accuracy?

a)

Place gate exactly where color shows the lumen

b)

Use the widest gate to include side walls

c)

Avoid angle correction for small vessels

d)

Place gate distal to the area of interest

38.

A uterine artery waveform shows high PI and RI values. Which physiologic interpretation is most consistent?

a)

High downstream resistance flow

b)

Low downstream resistance flow

c)

Arteriovenous shunting present

d)

Measurement of venous waveform

39.

Which labeled branch directly supplies the cervix in typical pelvic arterial anatomy?

a)

Cervical branch of uterine artery

b)

Tubal branch of uterine artery

c)

Ovarian branch of uterine artery

d)

Internal pudendal artery

40.

In a nonpregnant uterus during the proliferative phase, which Doppler characteristic is most typical?

a)

Low-resistance flow with RI near 0.4

b)

High-resistance flow with RI around 0.88

c)

Absent diastolic flow with RI undefined

d)

Turbulent flow with variable RI values

41.

On the day before ovulation, how does the uterine artery resistive index (RI) most commonly change from earlier proliferative values?

a)

Increases markedly to above 1.0

b)

Decreases slightly from earlier values

c)

Remains exactly the same throughout

d)

Reverses to negative diastolic values

42.

Which statement best describes ovarian arterial flow during the follicular phase on Doppler?

a)

Low-velocity and highly resistive waveform

b)

High-velocity and low-resistance waveform

c)

Turbulent high-velocity venous waveform

d)

Monophasic continuous low-resistance waveform

43.

Identify the vessel group often seen at the uterine periphery and its typical Doppler pattern.

a)

Radial arteries with low-velocity, low-resistance

b)

Arcuate vessels with high-velocity, high-resistance

c)

Spiral arteries with absent diastolic flow

d)

Uterine veins with triphasic arterial waveform

44.

Which combination matches the physiologic state with its expected Doppler finding?

a)

Nonpregnant uterine artery, resistive pattern predominant

b)

Follicular-phase ovary, high resistance and low velocity

c)

Arcuate uterine vessels, low-resistance diastolic augmentation

d)

Pre-ovulatory day, slight RI decrease in uterine artery

45.

A measured uterine artery RI of 0.82 in a nonpregnant patient most likely indicates which pattern?

a)

Physiologic high-resistance arterial flow

b)

Pathologic reversed diastolic flow state

c)

Physiologic low-resistance trophoblastic flow

d)

Venous triphasic spectral waveform

46.

During the follicular phase, which spectral Doppler feature is most expected in the ovarian stroma?

a)

Prominent diastolic forward flow

b)

Minimal diastolic flow with sharp systolic peaks

c)

To-and-fro flow with spectral broadening

d)

Continuous high-velocity laminar flow

47.

Which change would most strongly suggest transition from early proliferative toward periovulatory uterine hemodynamics?

a)

RI increases from 0.88 to 1.05

b)

RI decreases modestly from 0.88 to 0.80

c)

PSV decreases while RI remains unchanged

d)

EDV becomes negative indicating reversal

48.

Where are arcuate vessels located and how do they typically appear on Doppler?

a)

Within endometrium, low-resistance continuous flow

b)

Periphery of uterus, high-velocity high-resistance spikes

c)

Ovarian medulla, turbulent mixed venous signals

d)

Broad ligament, biphasic low-velocity pattern

49.

Which pairing is least consistent with normal physiology?

a)

Nonpregnant uterine artery RI about 0.88

b)

Follicular-phase ovary highly resistive flow

c)

Arcuate vessels high-velocity high-resistance

d)

Pre-ovulatory uterine RI increases substantially

50.

Which uterine layer forms the middle muscular component typically evaluated on ultrasound?

a)

Myometrium

b)

Endometrium

c)

Perimetrium

d)

Serosa

e)

Basalis

51.

On sonography, the normal myometrium should most typically appear as

a)

Homogeneous with smooth borders

b)

Heterogeneous with irregular walls

c)

Anechoic with indistinct margins

d)

Cystic with lobulated contour

e)

Highly echogenic with shadowing

52.

Which uterine layer is generally not visualized sonographically as a distinct structure?

a)

Outer serosa

b)

Inner endometrium

c)

Middle myometrium

d)

Junctional zone

e)

Subendometrium

53.

When scanning the uterus, areas of altered echotexture within the myometrium should be

a)

Noted and measured carefully

b)

Ignored unless very large

c)

Assumed physiological variants

d)

Compressed to improve detail

e)

Left for Doppler only

54.

In a transvaginal sagittal image of the uterus, the echogenic stripe labeled within the cavity corresponds to the

a)

Endometrial complex

b)

Cervical stroma

c)

Myometrial wall

d)

Serosal surface

e)

Arcuate vessels

55.

Which statement best describes the endometrium relative to the surrounding myometrium on ultrasound?

a)

Relatively echogenic stripe

b)

Uniformly anechoic band

c)

Markedly hyperechoic halo

d)

Heterogeneous hypoechoic mass

e)

Isoechoic indistinct layer

56.

The hypoechoic layer that creates a subendometrial halo represents

a)

Inner myometrium adjacent to endometrium

b)

Endometrial functional layer only

c)

Serosal peritoneal reflection

d)

Cervical mucosa continuation

e)

Arcuate vessel lumens

57.

Which attributes typically describe the endometrium’s inner layer characteristics?

a)

Thin and compact

b)

Relatively hypovascular

c)

Predominantly cystic appearance

d)

Uniformly heterogeneous texture

e)

Consistently thicker than myometrium

58.

Arcuate vessels are best described as

a)

Vessels separating outer and intermediate myometrium

b)

Branches supplying the cervix exclusively

c)

Portal venous collaterals within pelvis

d)

Uterine veins coursing within endometrium

e)

Ovarian arterial anastomoses at fundus

59.

A normal uterine echotexture evaluation should prioritize identifying

a)

Homogeneity of myometrium

b)

Smooth-walled borders

c)

Measurement of focal heterogeneity

d)

Accurate layer identification

e)

Routine depiction of serosa as a line

60.

Which statement best describes the normal arcuate vessels seen at the uterine periphery in imaging?

a)

Physiologic vessels not indicating pathology

b)

Collateral veins suggesting venous obstruction

c)

Ectopic arterial channels requiring embolization

d)

Neoplastic neovessels suspicious for malignancy

61.

Radial arteries in the uterus most directly arise from which vessels?

a)

Arcuate arteries within the myometrium

b)

Uterine veins near the cervix

c)

Ovarian arteries in the adnexa

d)

Spiral arteries of the endometrium

62.

What is the principal direction of travel for uterine radial arteries after branching?

a)

Centrally toward deeper uterine layers

b)

Peripherally along the serosal surface

c)

Laterally toward the fallopian tubes

d)

Inferiorly toward the cervical canal

63.

Which uterine layers receive the rich capillary network supplied by the radial arteries?

a)

Myometrium deeper regions

b)

Endometrium functional layer

c)

Perimetrium serosal layer

d)

Cervical epithelium

64.

Before entering the endometrium, radial arteries give rise to which named vessels?

a)

Straight and spiral endometrial arteries

b)

Segmental and arcuate uterine arteries

c)

Marginal and periuterine branches

d)

Transverse and oblique collaterals

65.

In the labeled uterine vascular diagram, which sequence best traces arterial flow from the uterine artery inward?

a)

Uterine → arcuate → radial → straight/spiral

b)

Uterine → spiral → arcuate → radial

c)

Uterine → radial → arcuate → peripheral

d)

Uterine → peripheral → arcuate → straight

66.

Which finding on Power Doppler most likely represents normal physiology rather than pathology?

a)

Prominent arcuate flow at the periphery

b)

Absent flow throughout the endometrium

c)

Tortuous neovessels crossing serosa

d)

Chaotic flow replacing myometrium

67.

Power Doppler depiction of myometrial versus endometrial vascularity typically shows which pattern?

a)

Radial vessels coursing centrally

b)

Capillary network within deeper layers

c)

Exclusive flow only in periphery

d)

No contribution from arcuate vessels

68.

A trainee confuses peripheral arteries with radial arteries on a diagram. Which distinguishing feature best identifies radial arteries?

a)

Central trajectory toward endometrium

b)

Parallel course along uterine serosa

c)

Origin directly from ovarian artery

d)

Termination in venous sinusoids