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OB EXAM questions

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Generalized itching without the presence of a rash NOT associated with poor perinatal outcomes

a)

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy 

b)

Pruritus Gravidarum

c)

VBAC candidates 

d)

Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

2.

tx for Pruritus Gravidarum

a)

antibiotics

b)

oral antihistamines

c)

skin lubrication

d)

topical antipruritics

3.

Pruritus Gravidarum is associated with:

a)

multiple gestation

b)

fertility treatment

c)

multiparity

d)

diabetes

e)

nulliparity

4.

Common pregnancy-specific cause of pruritus, (aka) pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP) typically starting in abdomen -> arms, thighs, back + buttocks; NOT associated with poor maternal or fetal outcomes

a)

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy 

b)

Pruritus Gravidarum

c)

VBAC candidates 

d)

Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

5.

tx for mild Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

a)

prednisone

b)

topical antipuritics

c)

topical steroids

d)

oral antihistamines

6.

tx for severe Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

a)

prednisone

b)

topical antipuritics

c)

topical steroids

d)

oral antihistamines

7.

Usually disappears shortly after birth but can reoccur in ½ of subsequent pregnancies.

a)

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

b)

Pruritus Gravidarum​

8.
  • Usually resolves before birth or within several weeks after birth; rarely persists or begins after birth; does not usually recur in subsequent pregnancies​

a)

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

b)

Pruritus Gravidarum​

9.
  • common liver disease of pregnancy; Characterized by generalized pruritus that usually begins in the third trimester of pregnancy.

a)

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy 

b)

Pruritus Gravidarum

c)

VBAC candidates 

d)

Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

10.

characteristics of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy (ICP)

a)

affects primarily the palms + soles (can occur anywhere)

b)

no lesions are present

c)

itching = worse at night, occurs more during winter

d)

lesions are present

11.

Abnormal labs with ICP

a)

black tarry stool

b)

elevated serum bile acids

c)

elevated liver function test

d)

jaundice

e)

dark urine + light colored stool

12.

tx for ICP

a)

ursodiol

b)

antihistamines

c)

cool, oatmeal baths, creams, lotions

d)

baking soda baths

e)

aqueous cream containing 2% menthol

13.

major fetal complications of ICP

a)

asphyxial events

b)

meconium staining

c)

meconium ileus

d)

newborn jaundice

e)

still or preterm birth

14.

if a NST and/or BPP is reassuring for a pt with ICP, when is it recommended to give birth?

a)

deliver at full term (40 wks)

b)

deliver at term (37 wks)

15.

T/F: maternal vitamin K deficiency can occur with ICP thus increasing the risk for

postpartum hemorrhage

a)

yeahhh buddy

b)

nah fam that's crazy

16.
  • ICP can recur in ________ of subsequent pregnancies​

a)

10% to 20%

b)

20% to 30%

c)

30% to 40%

d)
  • 40% to 90%

17.

which pts would be eligible for a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC)

a)

pt with no other uterine scars or history of previous rupture​

b)

pt with one or two previous low transverse cesarean births​

c)

pt with a clinically adequate pelvis​

d)

pt with a prior cesarean for dysfunctional labor, breech presentation, or abnormal FHR pattern

e)

pt with previous classical vertical uterine incision

18.

who would NOT be allowed to have a VBAC?

a)

pt with no provider immediately available

b)

pt whose baby is large for gestational age

c)

pt with malpresentation

d)

pt with cephalopelvic disproportions

e)

pt with a classical vertical uterine incision

19.

How long is a reasonable trial of labor for VBAC patients?

a)

1-2 hrs

b)

2-4 hrs

c)

4-6 hrs

d)

6-8 hrs

20.

fundal height steadily descends into the pelvis approximately ___ finger breath (cm) per day

a)

1

b)

1.5

c)

2

d)

2.5

21.

1 stage of lochia: Dark red color, bloody consistency, fleshy odor; small clots, transient flow increases during breastfeeding and upon rising; Lasts 1 to 3 days after birth

a)

serosa

b)

rubra

c)

alba

22.

2 stage of lochia: Pinkish brown color and serosanguineous consistency; small clots and leukocytes; Lasts from approximately day 4 to day 10 after birth

a)

serosa

b)

rubra

c)

alba

23.

3 stage of lochia: Yellowish white creamy color, fleshy odor; mucus and leukocytes; Lasts from approximately day 10 up to 6 weeks postpartum

a)

serosa

b)

rubra

c)

alba

24.

lochia saturation is <2.5 cm

a)

scant

b)

light

c)

moderate

d)

excessive

25.

lochia saturation is 2.5 cm to 10 cm

a)

scant

b)

light

c)

moderate

d)

excessive

26.

lochia saturation is one pad within 2 hrs

a)

scant

b)

light

c)

moderate

d)

excessive

27.

lochia saturation is one pad saturated in 15 min or less, or pooling of blood under buttocks​

a)

scant

b)

light

c)

moderate

d)

excessive

28.

lochia assessment: excessive spurting of bright red blood from the vagina

a)

endometritis

b)

cervical/vaginal tear

c)

infection

d)

retained placental fragments

e)

hemorrhage

29.

lochia assessment: numerous large clots and excessive blood loss

a)

endometritis

b)

cervical/vaginal tear

c)

infection

d)

retained placental fragments

e)

hemorrhage

30.

lochia assessment: Foul odor

a)

endometritis

b)

cervical/vaginal tear

c)

infection

d)

retained placental fragments

e)

hemorrhage

31.

lochia assessment: persistent heavy lochia rubra in the early postpartum period beyond day 3

a)

endometritis

b)

cervical/vaginal tear

c)

infection

d)

retained placental fragments

e)

hemorrhage

32.

lochia assessment: continued flow of lochia serosa or alba beyond the normal length of time; may be accompanied by fever, pain, or abdominal tenderness

a)

endometritis

b)

cervical/vaginal tear

c)

infection

d)

retained placental fragments

e)

hemorrhage

33.

contributing factors to cord prolapse

a)

polyhydramnios

b)

small for gestational age

c)

long cord

d)

malpresentation

e)

unengaged presenting part

34.

if you palpate cord prolapse, you keep your hand there and ride with the patient to the OR

a)

OF COURSE

b)

that's excessive...

35.

when does initial healing of perineal lacerations begin?

a)

3-5 days

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

1-3 months

d)

4-6 months

36.

when does complete healing of perineal lacerations begin?

a)

3-5 days

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

1-3 months

d)

4-6 months

37.

what would you apply to the perineum (indirectly) in the first 24 hrs to reduce edema and provide an anesthetic effect?

a)

ice/cold therapy

b)

heat therapy

38.

What is used on perineal lacerations to increase circulation and promote healing and comfort.

a)

ice/cold therapy

b)

heat therapy

39.

It is important to _____ the perineal area to clean it after toileting, starting from front to back

a)

scrub

b)

wipe

c)

blot

40.

the presence and growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

a)

endometritis

b)

endometriosis

41.

the most common reported STI in American women; pt rarely has manifestations; test at first prenatal visit and 3 trimester

a)

chlamydia

b)

gonnorhea

42.

possible manifestations of chlamydia

(tx with antibiotics + test of cure 3-4wks after completion)

a)

dysuria

b)

urinary frequency

c)

spotting/postcoital bleeding

d)

vulvar itching

e)

gray-white discharge

43.

primarily spread by genital-to-genital contact; also can be spread by anal-to-genital or oral-to-genital; testing at first prenatal visit + 3 trimester

a)

chlamydia

b)

gonnorhea

44.

complications of BOTH chlamydia and gonorrhea

a)

neonatal conjunctivitis + pneumonia

b)

salpingitis, intrauterine infection, postpartum + neonatal sepsis, IUGR

c)

PID, PROM, preterm birth, endometritis, ophthalmia neonatorum

45.

UNIQUE complications of chlamydia

a)

neonatal conjunctivitis + pneumonia

b)

salpingitis, intrauterine infection, postpartum + neonatal sepsis, IUGR

c)

PID, PROM, preterm birth, endometritis, ophthalmia neonatorum

46.

UNIQUE complications of gonorrhea

a)

neonatal conjunctivitis + pneumonia

b)

salpingitis, intrauterine infection, postpartum + neonatal sepsis, IUGR

c)

PID, PROM, preterm birth, endometritis, ophthalmia neonatorum

47.

tocolytic (CNS depressant/SM relaxation), also neuro protectant in babies <32 wks; used for seizure protection for preeclampsia

a)

mag sulfate

b)

betamethasone

c)

Cytotec

d)

Pitocin

48.

IM glucocorticoid for FLM in premature babies; 2 injections 24 hrs apart (within 24-48 hrs of birth); may increase maternal BS

a)

mag sulfate

b)

betamethasone

c)

Cytotec

d)

Pitocin

49.

used as a cervical ripening agent or during PPH; may cause HA, N/V, chills +fever

a)

mag sulfate

b)

betamethasone

c)

Cytotec

d)

Pitocin

50.

Used for labor induction or PPH (SM contraction); may cause N/V cramping, water intoxication, low BP

a)

mag sulfate

b)

betamethasone

c)

Cytotec

d)

Pitocin

51.

side effects of mag sulfate

a)

hot flashes/sweating

b)

burning at IV site

c)

N/V; drowsy

d)

blurred vison/HA

e)

nonreactive stress test

52.

MAG toxicity sx

a)

increased RR

b)

decreased BP

c)

urine output >30 ml/hr

d)

decreased DTRs + LOC

e)

decreased FHR

53.

reversal agent for MAG toxicity

a)

calcium sulfate

b)

calcium gluconate

c)

calcium citrate

d)

calcium phosphate

54.

which patient would you hold mag sulfate for?

a)

patient with active bleed

b)

patient with 4+ DTRs

c)

patient with an IV infection

d)

patient who is greater than 34 weeks gestation

e)

patient whose baby is in acute fetal distress

55.

score that evaluates inducibility

score of 8 or more = likely success of labor with or without induction

5 or less = unfavorable ripeness; requires cervical ripening agents

a)

braden scale

b)

APGAR score

c)

MEWS

d)

bishop score

56.

early risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage

a)

prolonged or precipitous labor

b)

lacerations or uterine ruptures

c)

uterine atony/prolapse/inversion

d)

placental separation/excessive umbilical cord tension

e)

mag use during labor

57.

risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage

a)

uterus subinvolution

b)

infection

c)

coagulopathy

d)

retained placental fragments

58.

period of emotional lability, crying, irritability, and anxiety that is very common and temporary (lasts roughly 2 weeks)

a)

Baby Blues 

b)

Postpartum Depression 

c)

Postpartum Psychosis

59.

mood disorder lasting more than 2 weeks; intensive pervasive sadness with liable mood swings; requires medical tx

a)

Baby Blues 

b)

Postpartum Depression 

c)

Postpartum Psychosis

60.

severe and rare psychiatric emergency; characterized by hallucinations, delusions, suspicions, confusion, paranoia, and manic or depressed moods, including thoughts of harming oneself or the baby

a)

Baby Blues 

b)

Postpartum Depression 

c)

Postpartum Psychosis

61.

The placenta is attached too deeply and firmly to the uterine lining (myometrium)

a)

Placenta accreta 

b)

Placenta increta 

c)

Placenta Percreta 

62.

The placenta invades through the uterine lining and into the muscular wall of the uterus (deep myometrium)

a)

Placenta accreta 

b)

Placenta increta 

c)

Placenta Percreta 

63.

The placenta penetrates completely through the uterine wall and may attach to nearby organs like the bladder or bowel

a)

Placenta accreta 

b)

Placenta increta 

c)

Placenta Percreta