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Diabetes pt 1

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following meets the diagnostic criteria for type 2 diabetes?

a)

FPG 118 mg/dL

b)

A1C 5.9%

c)

2-hr OGTT glucose 205 mg/dL

d)

Random glucose 150 mg/dL without symptoms

2.

Which A1C corresponds to an estimated average glucose (eAG) of approximately 183 mg/dL?

a)

6%

b)

7%

c)

8%

d)

9%

3.

A 17-year-old male presents with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Labs show BG 455 mg/dL, positive ketones, and low C-peptide. Which factor most likely contributed to the development of his condition?

a)

Progressive insulin resistance due to visceral adiposity

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells

c)

Hormonal changes in late pregnancy

d)

Excess hepatic glucose output due to chronic hypertension

4.

Which medication is most strongly associated with worsening glycemic control and new-onset hyperglycemia?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Risperidone

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Montelukast

5.

A 54-year-old woman presents with fatigue, blurry vision, and increased thirst for several months. Which additional symptom would strengthen the suspicion for undiagnosed T2DM?

a)

Recurrent urticaria

b)

Weight loss

c)

Decreased urination

d)

Heat intolerance

6.

Which presentation is more characteristic of T2DM than T1DM?

a)

Abrupt onset of symptoms

b)

Lean body type

c)

Gradual onset with mild symptoms

d)

Presence of ketosis at diagnosis

7.

A patient checks glucose twice daily with inconsistent timing. Her A1C is 9.3%. Which limitation of A1C should be considered when assessing her regimen?

a)

A1C identifies the exact cause of hyperglycemia

b)

A1C can rapidly detect changes in glycemic control

c)

A1C does not distinguish fasting vs postprandial hyperglycemia

d)

A1C is unreliable if SMBG values are stable

8.

Which patient should be screened immediately for T2DM according to ADA guidance?

a)

BMI 22, age 45, physically active

b)

BMI 27 with a first-degree relative with T2DM

c)

BMI 25 without risk factors, age 32

d)

Age 34 with no risk factors

9.

A patient has FPG 129 mg/dL on two separate occasions. What is the correct suspicion?

a)

Normal

b)

Prediabetes

c)

Diabetes

d)

Indeterminate—requires OGTT

10.

A 70-year-old patient with multiple comorbidities and high hypoglycemia risk asks about A1C goals. Which is most appropriate?

a)

A1C <6.5%

b)

A1C <7%

c)

A1C <8%

d)

A1C <5.7%

11.

Which values represent ADA-recommended glucose goals for most non-pregnant adults?

a)

FPG <100 mg/dL; PPG <140 mg/dL

b)

FPG 80–130 mg/dL; PPG <180 mg/dL

c)

FPG <110 mg/dL; PPG <140 mg/dL

d)

FPG <150 mg/dL; PPG <200 mg/dL

12.

A patient newly diagnosed with T2DM is counseled on nutrition. Which dietary strategy aligns with ADA recommendations?

a)

Replace whole grains with refined carbohydrates to stabilize BG

b)

Limit carbohydrate intake to 60–75 g per meal for women

c)

Spread carbohydrate intake evenly across meals and snacks

d)

Avoid all fruit due to its natural sugar content

13.

Which exercise recommendation is accurate for improving glycemic control?

a)

60 minutes vigorous exercise once weekly

b)

Resistance training only

c)

≥150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise weekly, spread over ≥3 days

d)

Exercise only when fasting glucose <100 mg/dL

14.

In gestational diabetes, glucose intolerance most often first appears during which period?

a)

Early first trimester due to increased insulin secretion

b)

Mid-second trimester due to decreased fetal glucose use

c)

Early third trimester due to pregnancy-induced insulin resistance

d)

Final month of pregnancy due to placental glucose depletion

15.

A 30-year-old Asian American patient (BMI 24) has a triglyceride level of 260 mg/dL and HDL 32 mg/dL. How should they be screened?

a)

No screening indicated until age 45

b)

Screen now due to dyslipidemia and high-risk ethnicity

c)

Screen only if symptoms develop

d)

Screen only if BMI ≥ 25 kg/m²

16.

Which vaccination is recommended annually for all patients with diabetes?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Influenza

c)

Pneumococcal

d)

Zoster

17.

A patient’s labs show:
• A1C 6.0%
• FPG 108 mg/dL
• OGTT 165 mg/dL
What is the best interpretation?

a)

Normal

b)

Prediabetes

c)

Diabetes

d)

Must repeat OGTT

18.

A thin 21-year-old presents with DKA. Which characteristic best distinguishes T1DM from T2DM in this context?

a)

Gradual onset of symptoms

b)

High C-peptide concentration

c)

Positive autoantibodies

d)

Long-standing mild hyperglycemia

19.

Which symptom is more typical in T2DM than T1DM?

a)

Ketosis at presentation

b)

Rapid onset of symptoms

c)

Gradual fatigue and mild polydipsia

d)

Significant unintentional weight loss

20.

A patient has decreased vibration sense and reduced monofilament sensation bilaterally. What is the primary concern?

a)

Autonomic neuropathy

b)

Increased fracture risk

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

21.

Which non-insulin therapy carries a high risk of hypoglycemia?

a)

DPP-4 inhibitors

b)

GLP-1 agonists

c)

Sulfonylureas

d)

SGLT2 inhibitors

22.

Which GLP-1 agonist is taken orally and must be taken ≥30 minutes before first food/drink?

a)

Rybelsus

b)

Trulicity

c)

Victoza

d)

Byetta

23.

Which diabetes class is associated with pancreatitis and sever arthralgia?

a)

Thiazolidinediones

b)

DPP-4 inhibitors

c)

SGLT2 inhibitors

d)

Meglitinides

24.

A patient starting pramlintide should have which adjustment made to current insulin therapy?

a)

Increase basal insulin by 10%

b)

Reduce prandial insulin by 50%

c)

Stop basal insulin

d)

Add NPH twice daily

25.

Which drug requires avoiding sucrose-containing products during hypoglycemia treatment?

a)

Acarbose

b)

Linagliptin

c)

Dulaglutide

d)

Sitagliptin

26.

Which of the following is NOT recommended for hypoglycemia management?

a)

4 oz fruit juice

b)

8 oz milk

c)

4 oz regular soda

d)

1 tbsp honey

e)

1-2 glucose tablets

27.

Which insulin is cloudy?

a)

Lispro

b)

Glargine

c)

NPH

d)

Aspart

28.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Glargine

Degludec

Lispro

Glulisine

Afrezza

Regular

Novolin R

Humulin R

NPH

Novolin N

Humulin N

Long/Ultra long Acting Basal
Rapid-Acting Bolus
Short-Acting Bolus
Intermediate Basal
29.

Which insulin is contraindicated in COPD or asthma?

a)

Lispro

b)

Afrezza

c)

Basaglar

d)

Novolin N

30.

When converting Toujeo → Lantus, what dose adjustment is needed?

a)

Increase Lantus by 20%

b)

Lantus = Toujeo dose

c)

Lantus = 80% of Toujeo dose

d)

Reduce Toujeo by 50%

31.

A patient has fasting hyperglycemia due to rebound from nighttime hypoglycemia. What condition is this?

a)

Dawn phenomenon

b)

Reactogenic hypoglycemia

c)

Somogyi effect

d)

Insulin stacking

32.

Which drug should be avoided in a patient with a family history of thyroid cancer?

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Empagliflozin

c)

Dulaglutide

d)

Repaglinide

33.

Which agent is most associated with urinary tract infections and increased urination?

a)

Linagliptin

b)

Pioglitazone

c)

Empagliflozin

d)

Metformin

34.

Which non-insulin agent is most likely to cause bone fractures?

a)

Pioglitazone

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Metformin

d)

Acarbose

35.

A patient on prandial insulin starts pramlintide without adjusting their insulin dose. They are at highest risk for:

a)

Weight gain

b)

Heart failure

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperglycemia

36.

A 58-year-old patient with T2DM (A1C 8.4%) is overweight and has a history of ASCVD. He cannot tolerate metformin due to severe GI issues. He is currently on sitagliptin but has had minimal improvement in A1C. His eGFR is 70.

Which is the BEST next step?

a)

Increase sitagliptin dose

b)

Switch to liraglutide

c)

Switch to glyburide

d)

Switch to pioglitazone

37.

Which insulin is inhaled and has the fastest onset?

a)

Aspart

b)

Regular U-100

c)

Lispro

d)

Afrezza

38.

A patient’s bedtime glucose is normal, but fasting levels are consistently elevated. Overnight readings are normal, and the patient denies hypoglycemia. What is the most likely phenomenon?

a)

Somogyi effect

b)

Dawn phenomenon

c)

Bolus stacking

d)

Carbohydrate overdose

39.

Which insulin can be administered IV during acute illness or DKA?

a)

Lispro

b)

Regular

c)

Glargine

d)

NPH

40.

Which therapy has the highest likelihood of hypoglycemia?

a)

SGLT2 inhibitor

b)

GLP-1 receptor agonist

c)

Sulfonylurea

d)

Metformin

41.

A 64-kg adult is newly diagnosed with T1DM and requires full insulin initiation. What is the recommended TDD?

a)

16 units/day

b)

22 units/day

c)

32 units/day

d)

64 units/day

42.

If a patient's target BG is 120 mg/dL, current BG is 210 mg/dL, and CF = 30, what correction bolus is needed?

a)

1 unit

b)

2 units

c)

3 units

d)

4 units

43.

A patient has TDD = 50 units/day of rapid acting insulin. What is the estimated insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio (ICR)?

a)

1 unit per 5 g carbs

b)

1 unit per 10 g carbs

c)

1 unit per 15 g carbs

d)

1 unit per 20 g carbs

44.

A patient is switched to premixed 70/30 insulin 30 units BID. How many units per dose are basal-equivalent?

a)

21 units

b)

14 units

c)

9 units

d)

6 units

45.

A patient takes Toujeo 75 units daily and must switch to Lantus. What is the correct starting Lantus dose?

a)

45 units

b)

60 units

c)

75 units

d)

90 units

46.

A newly diagnosed adult with T2DM has an A1C >10% and fasting BG >300 mg/dL. According to recommended treatment escalation, which therapy should be initiated?

a)

Metformin alone

b)

Sulfonylurea therapy

c)

GLP-1 agonist monotherapy

d)

Insulin therapy

47.

Which medication class is preferred in overweight or obese patients because of weight-loss benefits?

a)

TZDs

b)

GLP-1 agonists

c)

Sulfonylureas

d)

α-glucosidase inhibitors

48.

Which insulin regimen adjustment is recommended when post-prandial glucose remains elevated even though fasting values are within goal?

a)

Increase basal insulin dose

b)

Switch basal insulin to NPH

c)

Add rapid-acting insulin with meals

d)

Increase daily carbohydrate intake

49.

A patient is switching from Lantus to Toujeo. Which conversion is guideline-appropriate?

a)

Reduce Toujeo to 80% of Lantus dose

b)

Use a 1:1 unit conversion

c)

Increase Toujeo by 50%

d)

Double the Toujeo dose

50.

A 57-year-old with T2DM is obese and wants a medication that improves glycemic control, supports weight reduction, and has low hypoglycemia risk.
Which therapy options meet ALL criteria based on recommended treatment characteristics?

a)

Dulaglutide

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Empagliflozin

d)

Glyburide

e)

Pioglitazone

51.

Which of the following are contraindications or major caution flags based on medication safety precautions?

a)

Starting dulaglutide in a patient with family history of medullary thyroid cancer

b)

Using Afrezza in patients with lung disease

c)

Continuing metformin during acute dehydration

d)

Adding sulfonylurea in a patient with significant hypoglycemia risk

52.

A 72-kg adult with newly diagnosed T1DM requires insulin initiation.
What is the recommended starting basal dose if using a long-acting analog?

a)

12 units

b)

18 units

c)

24 units

d)

36 units

53.

A 90-kg patient with T2DM must start basal insulin. Use 0.2 units/kg/day to initiate basal.
Which initial dose is appropriate?

a)

9 units

b)

12 units

c)

18 units

d)

30 units

54.

A 54-year-old with T2DM is overweight and has an A1C of 8.6% despite metformin and lifestyle changes. She wants a medication that helps lower A1C, reduce weight, and has low hypoglycemia risk.
Which is the most appropriate recommendation?

a)

Glipizide

b)

Pioglitazone

c)

Dulaglutide

d)

NPH insulin

55.

Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?

a)

Regular insulin

b)

Lispro

c)

Aspart

d)

Afrezza

56.

A 62-year-old with T2DM and recurrent UTI symptoms is currently taking a new medication. Which agent is most likely contributing?

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Empagliflozin

c)

Liraglutide

d)

Metformin ER

57.

A patient with T1DM has a TDD of 48 units/day with regular insulin. What is the estimated insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio (ICR)?

a)

1 unit per 20 g carbs

b)

1 unit per 15 g carbs

c)

1 unit per 12 g carbs

d)

1 unit per 9 g carbs

58.

A patient’s TDD is 36 units/day. What is their estimated correction factor, assuming rapid-acting insulin?

a)

10 mg/dL/unit

b)

20 mg/dL/unit

c)

30 mg/dL/unit

d)

50 mg/dL/unit

59.

Which insulin has the longest duration of action and provides a very stable 24-plus-hour profile?

a)

Lispro

b)

NPH

c)

Regular U-100

d)

Degludec

60.

A patient is converting from Toujeo to Lantus. Which conversion principle applies?

a)

Convert using 1:1 dosing

b)

Increase Lantus by 20%

c)

Decrease Lantus dose to ~80% of Toujeo dose

d)

Conversion is contraindicated