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Sonographic Evaluation of Ovarian Neoplasms

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

At what cyst size do doctors usually recommend surgery?

a)

Greater than 10 cm

b)

Greater than 8 cm

c)

Greater than 3 cm

d)

Greater than 5 cm

2.

In postmenopausal ovarian sonograms, which mass feature is the most suspicious?

a)

Mixed texture to solid with papillae

b)

Thin-walled simple anechoic cyst

c)

Stable size with multiple follicles

d)

Uniform low echogenicity throughout

3.

Which ultrasound lesion description is most likely benign?

a)

Well-defined anechoic lesion

b)

Thick, irregular septations

c)

Mural nodules present

d)

Solid echogenic elements

4.

Which Doppler pattern in ovarian masses suggests possible malignancy?

a)

Low-resistive arterial flow

b)

High-resistive venous flow

c)

Triphasic high-impedance flow

d)

Absent detectable Doppler signal

5.

Which statement about septation and locularity in ovarian cysts is most accurate?

a)

Multiloculated thin septations ensure benignity

b)

No septations always indicate malignancy

c)

Unilocular, thinly septated cysts tend to be benign

d)

Any septations confirm malignancy

6.

Which finding suggests extra-ovarian spread and requires further evaluation?

a)

Extension to omentum or peritoneum

b)

Presence of small physiologic cysts

c)

Normal ovarian vascular resistive index

d)

Mobile free fluid without echoes

7.

Which type of mass is most likely to be malignant?

a)

Multilocular, thickly septated mass

b)

Smooth-walled, avascular lesion

c)

Simple, unilocular, thin-walled cyst

d)

Uniform, anechoic fluid collection

8.

Which change in ovarian volume is considered suspicious during screening?

a)

More than 20 ml

b)

More than 40 ml

c)

More than 10 ml

d)

More than 30 ml

9.

Which ovarian feature is seen in postmenopausal women not on HRT?

a)

Atrophic ovaries without follicles

b)

Enlarged ovaries with many follicles

c)

Normal-sized ovaries with cysts

d)

Hypertrophic ovaries with papillae

10.

Which sonographic pattern in postmenopausal ovaries suggests malignancy?

a)

Isoechoic ovaries with smooth walls

b)

Uniform anechoic follicles

c)

Small hypoechoic ovaries

d)

Enlarged echogenic ovaries

11.

Which statement best describes the mortality rate of ovarian carcinoma among gynecologic cancers?

a)

Lowest mortality due to early detection

b)

Highest mortality from late-stage diagnosis

c)

Moderate mortality with effective screening

d)

Declining mortality from widespread vaccination

12.

At what ages is ovarian carcinoma most commonly seen?

a)

40 to 60 years

b)

70 to 90 years

c)

20 to 30 years

d)

10 to 20 years

13.

Which is the most important risk factor for ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Use of combined oral contraceptives

b)

Nulliparity without infertility

c)

Early menarche with obesity

d)

Family history of ovarian cancer

14.

Why is ovarian carcinoma often diagnosed at an advanced stage?

a)

Routine screening detects precancerous lesions.

b)

Symptoms are prominent early.

c)

Asymptomatic and undetectable early.

d)

Patients present with dramatic bleeding.

15.

Which clinical finding is commonly seen in advanced ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Ascites with abdominal distension

b)

Productive cough with hemoptysis

c)

Severe pruritus with excoriations

d)

Hematemesis with jaundice

16.

Which serum marker is commonly elevated in epithelial ovarian cancer?

a)

CA-125

b)

AFP

c)

CA 19-9

d)

CEA

17.

Which patient presentation is most suggestive of ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Acute diarrhea with high fever and chills

b)

Vague abdominal pain, bloating, constipation

c)

Right upper quadrant colicky pain after eating

d)

Sharp localized pain with rebound tenderness

18.

On physical examination, what adnexal findings might be observed in ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Normal ovaries to slightly enlarged, irregular ovaries

b)

Large, tender uterus with homogeneous texture

c)

Smooth cystic mass, always unilateral

d)

Firm, mobile mass resolving with rest

19.

Which imaging findings suggest malignant spread of ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Ascites, peritoneal implants, lymphadenopathy

b)

Single mural nodule without other features

c)

Isolated ovarian cyst without ascites

d)

Normal ovaries with mild free fluid only

20.

Which description best matches Stage I ovarian cancer?

a)

Confined to one or both ovaries only

b)

Spread to pelvic organs and tissues

c)

Peritoneal implants on bowel and omentum

d)

Metastasis to liver parenchyma or beyond

21.

Which type of epithelial ovarian tumor accounts for approximately 30% of all ovarian neoplasms?

a)

Serous neoplasms

b)

Mucinous neoplasms

c)

Brenner neoplasms

d)

Endometrioid neoplasms

22.

Which statement best describes the origin of epithelial ovarian tumors?

a)

Sex cord–stromal cells

b)

Surface epithelium covering the ovary

c)

Peritoneal mesothelial lining

d)

Germ cells within follicles

23.

Cystadenoma and cystadenocarcinoma are types of which category of epithelial tumors?

a)

Serous and mucinous types

b)

Endometrioid only type

c)

Clear cell only type

d)

Brenner only type

24.

Which epithelial ovarian tumor subtype accounts for about 20–25% of all ovarian neoplasms?

a)

Clear cell tumors

b)

Endometrioid tumors

c)

Serous tumors

d)

Mucinous tumors

25.

What is the typical size range of giant mucinous cystadenomas of the ovary?

a)

5–15 cm diameter

b)

15–50 cm diameter

c)

3–8 cm diameter

d)

10–30 cm diameter

26.

A patient presents with a large multilocular cystic ovarian mass featuring papillary projections, calcifications, and ascites. Which malignant tumor is most likely?

a)

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

b)

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

c)

Clear cell carcinoma

d)

Brenner tumor

27.

Which clinical feature is most consistently associated with mucinous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary?

a)

Krukenberg metastasis

b)

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

c)

Meigs syndrome triad

d)

History of endometriosis

28.

A patient presents with pelvic fullness and weight loss. In which age range does serous cystadenocarcinoma most commonly present with these symptoms?

a)

Age 30–50, dysuria and hematuria

b)

Age >60, acute pain and fever

c)

Age 20–40, amenorrhea and infertility

d)

Age 40–60, pelvic fullness and weight loss

29.

Abigail and Kai discover a solid, hypoechoic ovarian mass with calcification, possibly associated with Meig’s syndrome. Which benign epithelial tumor is this?

a)

Brenner tumor

b)

Serous cystadenoma

c)

Mucinous cystadenoma

d)

Endometrioid tumor

30.

A patient presents with a large, unilateral abdominal mass on ultrasound, showing thick, irregular walls, septations, papillary projections, and internal echoes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

b)

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

c)

Mucinous cystadenoma

d)

Endometrioid carcinoma

31.

Using the image given, what ovarian neoplasm should be considered?

a)

Fibroma

b)

Serous cystadenoma

c)

Endometrioma

d)

Dermoid cyst

32.

Using the image given, which ultrasound feature makes you most suspicious of a mucinous cystadenoma rather than a simple ovarian cyst?

a)

Posterior acoustic shadowing throughout

b)

Uniform anechoic single cavity

c)

Circumferential calcified wall appearance

d)

Multiple compartments with thin septa

33.

Spectral Doppler was obtained from the ovarian mass shown. The waveform and the sonographic image are consistent with which of the following?

a)

Paraovarian cyst with no internal flow

b)

Benign serous cystadenoma, avascular

c)

Hemorrhagic cyst with increase vascularity

d)

Serous cystadenocarcinoma with vascularity

34.

Which statement best describes ovarian germ cell tumors?

a)

Develop from secondary Müllerian structures

b)

Arise from mature stromal thecal cells

c)

Derived from primitive embryonic germ cells

d)

Originate from surface epithelial mesothelium

35.

What proportion of ovarian neoplasms are germ cell tumors?

a)

Roughly thirty to forty percent

b)

Approximately five to ten percent

c)

About fifteen to twenty-five percent

d)

Nearly fifty to sixty percent

36.

Which is the most common ovarian neoplasm?

a)

Dermoid cystic teratoma

b)

Immature teratoma

c)

Dysgerminoma

d)

Endodermal sinus tumor

37.

A patient with a germ cell tumor presents with pelvic or abdominal pain and a mass. Which markers are often elevated?

a)

TSH, prolactin, cortisol

b)

CEA, CA-19-9, PSA

c)

AFP, LDH, hCG

d)

AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase

38.

Which sonographic feature is most characteristic of a dermoid (cystic teratoma)?

a)

Hypervascular solid lesion with central scar

b)

Multiloculated cyst with thick septations and ascites

c)

Uniform hypoechoic solid mass without calcification

d)

Calcifications with shadowing, floating hair strands

39.

Which feature best describes an immature teratoma?

a)

Rapidly growing unilateral malignant mass

b)

Slow-growing bilateral benign lesion

c)

Hormone-secreting tumor causing virilization

d)

Cystic benign lesion with teeth and bone

40.

Which marker pattern is most commonly associated with immature teratoma?

a)

High inhibin and estradiol levels

b)

Isolated elevation of CA-125 only

c)

Marked increase in CA-19-9 alone

d)

Elevated AFP, hCG, LDH, and CEA

41.

Which clinical scenario is most commonly associated with dysgerminoma?

a)

Postmenopausal bleeding episodes

b)

Infertility with oligomenorrhea

c)

Children with precocious puberty

d)

Adult males with gynecomastia

42.

What is the typical ultrasound appearance of a dysgerminoma?

a)

Predominantly cystic lesion with septations

b)

Complex mass with fat-fluid levels

c)

Solid mass with central scar and calcified rim

d)

Solid homogeneous mass with irregular borders

43.

Which serum marker is most strongly associated with an endodermal sinus tumor?

a)

High hCG with normal AFP

b)

Alpha-fetoprotein elevation

c)

Raised CA-125 without AFP change

d)

Marked increase in LDH only

44.

Which ovarian germ cell tumor often shows calcifications such as teeth or bone on imaging?

a)

Dysgerminoma

b)

Endodermal sinus tumor

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Dermoid cystic teratoma

45.

Avery says dermoid cystic teratomas are always bilateral. Ethan says only 15% are bilateral. Who is correct about their bilateral occurrence?

a)

More common in midline extragonadal sites

b)

Exclusively unilateral involvement

c)

Predominantly always bilateral involvement

d)

Fifteen percent bilateral involvement

46.

Which statement best describes the sonographic appearance of germ cell tumors?

a)

The appearance varies from cystic to complex to solid.

b)

They always present as homogeneous hypoechoic masses.

c)

They consistently show multiloculated cystic morphology.

d)

They uniformly demonstrate central necrotic cavities.

47.

In which age range is dysgerminoma most common?

a)

Adolescence only

b)

Above seventy years

c)

Under five years of age

d)

Twenty to thirty years

48.

Which marker is associated with dysgerminoma?

a)

Consistent rise in CEA

b)

Strong increase in hCG

c)

Markedly high AFP levels

d)

Elevated LDH and sometimes CA-125

49.

Which set of symptoms best fits a dermoid cystic teratoma?

a)

Ascites and weight loss

b)

Fever and leukocytosis

c)

Vaginal bleeding and anemia

d)

Asymptomatic mass or torsion pain

50.

What is the 'dermoid plug' in a cystic dermoid?

a)

Homogeneous hypoechoic solid mass

b)

Peripheral calcified rim around the lesion

c)

Echogenic mural nodule attached to the cyst wall

d)

Thin avascular septation within the cyst

51.

Which ultrasound finding is seen with the classic 'dermoid mesh' pattern in a mature cystic teratoma?

a)

Multiple linear echogenic interfaces floating in a cyst

b)

Uniform hypoechoic solid mass without cystic areas

c)

Layered fluid-debris level with posterior enhancement

d)

Single calcified tooth creating strong shadowing

52.

The left ovary shows a solid mass with hypoechoic irregular septa and a 'lobulated' pattern on ultrasound. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Endometrioma with ground-glass echoes

b)

Immature solid teratoma of the ovary

c)

Hemorrhagic cyst of the ovary

d)

Serous cystadenoma with thin septa

53.

Which ovarian tumor category arises from the sex cords of the embryonic gonad or the ovarian stroma?

a)

Metastatic gastrointestinal lesions

b)

Sex cord–stromal tumor category

c)

Germ cell tumor derivatives

d)

Epithelial neoplasms of surface lining

54.

Which ovarian stromal tumor is known for producing estrogen?

a)

Fibroma produces progesterone.

b)

Thecoma produces estrogen.

c)

Granulosa cell tumor produces androgens.

d)

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor produces cortisol.

55.

Which ovarian stromal tumor is classically associated with Meigs syndrome?

a)

Thecoma with ascites and hydrothorax

b)

Sertoli-Leydig with pleural effusions

c)

Fibroma with ascites and hydrothorax

d)

Granulosa with endocrine hypertension

56.

In which age group are thecomas most commonly found?

a)

Any age

b)

Adolescents (10–19 years)

c)

Postmenopausal women

d)

Women aged 20–30 years

57.

Maya and Avery are studying sonography. They encounter a case of thecoma. Which sonographic feature are they most likely to find?

a)

Cystic lesion with strong enhancement

b)

Anechoic simple cyst without walls

c)

Hypoechoic solid mass with attenuation

d)

Mixed echogenicity with calcified septa

58.

Which statement best describes granulosa cell tumors?

a)

Androgen-producing, causes rapid virilization

b)

Most common estrogenic tumor, occurs at varied ages

c)

Always bilateral, uniformly malignant

d)

Predominantly cystic, does not produce hormones

59.

Which scenario best suggests a granulosa cell tumor?

a)

Amenorrhea with deepening of the voice

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding and pain

c)

Precocious puberty, oligomenorrhea

d)

Asymptomatic pressure without bleeding

60.

Grace says fibromas can be found on both sides. James asks how often that occurs. What is the usual location pattern for fibromas?

a)

Always bilateral in presentation

b)

Ten percent bilateral occurrence

c)

Uniformly unilateral occurrence

d)

Predominantly midline pelvic location

61.

Which age range is most commonly associated with Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors?

a)

Children under ten years

b)

Ages twenty to thirty years

c)

Postmenopausal, over sixty years

d)

Any age without limit

62.

What hormonal effect is seen with Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors?

a)

Cortisol excess with Cushing's features

b)

Progesterone excess with lactation

c)

Androgen excess with signs of virilization

d)

Estrogen excess with endometrial growth

63.

What is the typical sonographic appearance of a granulosa cell tumor?

a)

Solid, complex, and heterogeneous

b)

Purely anechoic, simple, thin-walled

c)

Calcified, multilocular, with septations

d)

Uniformly hyperechoic, fat-containing

64.

Which ultrasound pattern best helps to identify a granulosa cell tumor?

a)

Multiloculated cyst with thin, avascular septations

b)

Solid lesion with dense, shadowing calcifications

c)

Predominantly solid with few cystic spaces

d)

Large, complex mass with solid and cystic components

e)

Purely cystic lesion without internal echoes

65.

Lily and Michael observe an ovarian fibroma on ultrasound. Which echotexture best describes it?

a)

Solid mass with coarse calcifications

b)

Predominantly cystic with mural nodule

c)

Complex solid-cystic with septations

d)

Heterogeneous solid with necrotic areas

e)

Homogeneous solid mass echotexture

66.

What vascular and cystic features are typically seen in Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors?

a)

Avascular solid mass without cysts

b)

Predominantly solid mass with few cystic areas and vascularity

c)

Solid mass with extensive calcifications and no flow

d)

Multiloculated cyst with high-resistance flow

e)

Purely cystic lesion with no vascular flow

67.

This transvaginal image shows a solid ovarian mass with small cystic areas. Which stromal tumor diagnosis best matches this pattern?

a)

Sertoli-Leydig tumor due to calcified solid mass.

b)

Granulosa cell tumor due to mixed solid-cystic appearance.

c)

Dysgerminoma due to purely cystic presentation.

d)

Fibroma due to homogeneous solid echotexture.

e)

Theca cell tumor due to multiloculated cystic nature.

68.

Which primary site most commonly causes Krukenberg tumor in the ovaries?

a)

Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma

b)

Cutaneous melanoma

c)

Gastric or colon origin

d)

Endometrial carcinoma

e)

Breast carcinoma

69.

Which option best describes the classic ultrasound appearance of a Krukenberg tumor in the ovary?

a)

Uniform, solid, echogenic oval mass

b)

Predominantly calcified, hyperechoic lesion

c)

Simple anechoic cyst without septations

d)

Multiloculated cyst with thin, clear fluid only

e)

Moth-eaten solid mass with cystic or complex areas

70.

What is the most common laterality pattern seen in Krukenberg tumors of the ovaries?

a)

Bilateral ovarian involvement is common

b)

Alternating side involvement over time

c)

Midline extraovarian involvement exclusively

d)

Pelvic sidewall involvement without ovarian disease

e)

Strictly unilateral involvement only

71.

Isla, James, and Mia are studying for their clinical exams. They encounter a case of secondary ovarian metastases, such as Krukenberg tumors. Which combination of symptoms would help them identify it?

a)

Pruritus with urticarial eruptions

b)

Abdominal or pelvic pain with bloating

c)

Vertigo with tinnitus

d)

Polyuria with predominant nocturia

e)

Fever and productive cough

72.

Who is most commonly associated with metastatic ovarian disease of gastrointestinal origin?

a)

Postoperative patients

b)

Pregnant patients

c)

Young males

d)

Middle-aged and elderly females

e)

Adolescent females

73.

Lily, Zoe, and Jackson observe an encapsulated solid Krukenberg mass in the ovary on an ultrasound. What other finding might be seen on the scan?

a)

Hydronephrosis in both kidneys

b)

Ascites in the peritoneal cavity

c)

Gallbladder sludge and polyps

d)

Pleural effusions in both lungs

e)

Pericardial effusion around the heart