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Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines medication adherence in clinical practice?

a)

Taking medications only when symptoms worsen

b)

Taking medications correctly—right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right reason

c)

Stopping medications when feeling better to avoid side effects

d)

Taking double doses if a dose was missed

2.

A practical strategy to improve adherence includes which action?

a)

Skip doses when busy

b)

Use alarms, pill boxes, or set routines

c)

Double the next dose after a missed dose

d)

Rely solely on memory without tools

3.

In the sympathetic division of the ANS, the typical physiologic effect is:

a)

Decreased heart rate and blood pressure, constricted pupils

b)

Increased HR/BP, bronchodilation, pupil dilation, decreased digestion

c)

Increased digestion and secretions

d)

Bronchoconstriction and miosis

4.

Which nickname correctly matches its ANS division?

a)

Sympathetic—Rest & Digest

b)

Parasympathetic—Fight or Flight

c)

Sympathetic—Fight or Flight

d)

Parasympathetic—Adrenaline = GO!

5.

Adrenergic agonists (sympathomimetics) primarily:

a)

Turn OFF the sympathetic system

b)

Turn ON the sympathetic system

c)

Turn ON the parasympathetic system

d)

Block acetylcholine receptors

6.

Which is a listed use of adrenergic agonists?

a)

Migraine prevention

b)

Asthma, shock, cardiac arrest, hypotension, allergic reaction

c)

Bradycardia and fatigue

d)

Hypertension and angina

7.

A patient on epinephrine develops tremors and restlessness. These are best categorized as:

a)

Expected side effects of adrenergic agonists

b)

Signs of hypoglycemia only

c)

Normal parasympathetic responses

d)

Harmless placebo responses

8.

Which interaction raises the risk of hypertensive crisis with adrenergic agonists?

a)

Insulin

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

MAOIs and TCAs; caffeine

d)

Alcohol and hot showers

9.

Adrenergic blockers (sympatholytics) are used to treat which condition?

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Asthma exacerbations

c)

Hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, heart failure, migraine prevention

d)

Anaphylaxis

10.

Teaching for beta-blockers includes which instruction?

a)

Hold if HR < 60 or BP < 100; rise slowly; never stop suddenly

b)

Carry EpiPen and inject outer thigh; hold 3 sec; call 911

c)

Increase caffeine intake to avoid fatigue

d)

Skip pulse checks to prevent anxiety

11.

Which statement best describes the action of cholinergic agonists (parasympathomimetics)?

a)

Turn OFF "fight or flight"

b)

Turn ON "rest & digest"

c)

Block acetylcholine to make patients dry, fast, and alert

d)

Increase beta-adrenergic receptor activity

12.

A patient with urinary retention is most likely to receive which cholinergic agonist?

a)

Atropine

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Scopolamine

13.

Which side effect cluster is characteristic of cholinergic agonists and remembered by the acronym SLUDGE?

a)

Dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, confusion

b)

Saliva, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI cramps, emesis

c)

Bradycardia, motion sickness, urinary urgency

d)

Heat intolerance, urinary retention, tachycardia

14.

What is the antidote for excessive cholinergic effects such as drooling and diarrhea?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Atropine

c)

Naloxone

d)

Flumazenil

15.

Which monitoring priority is emphasized for patients receiving cholinergic agonists?

a)

Monitor HR, lungs, and secretions

b)

Monitor liver enzymes only

c)

Check serum potassium every 4 hours

d)

Daily weight and ankle edema

16.

Anticholinergics (parasympatholytics) primarily do which of the following?

a)

Activate muscarinic receptors

b)

Block acetylcholine leading to dry, fast, and alert

c)

Increase gastrointestinal motility

d)

Stimulate lacrimation and urination

17.

Which interaction increases the risk of severe dryness in patients taking anticholinergics?

a)

Concurrent antihistamines, TCAs, or antipsychotics

b)

Beta blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Loop diuretics

18.

Which teaching point aligns with cholinergic agonists in patient education for ANS drugs?

a)

Stay hydrated; avoid sun; manage constipation

b)

Rise slowly; don’t stop suddenly; monitor HR/BP daily

c)

Expect jittery feeling; avoid caffeine; report chest pain

d)

Have bathroom access; stop if diarrhea or drooling

19.

A patient with COPD develops bronchospasm after starting a new medication. Based on the safety table, what is the most likely cause and appropriate safety measure?

a)

Cause: Anticholinergic; Measure: Cool environment, fluids

b)

Cause: Nonselective beta blocker; Measure: Avoid in asthma/COPD

c)

Cause: Beta blocker; Measure: Hold <60 HR/<100 BP

d)

Cause: Adrenergic agonist; Measure: Monitor HR/BP closely

20.

Which drug combination for Parkinson's disease increases dopamine or mimics dopamine and is associated with dyskinesia, nausea, and orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Donepezil–Rivastigmine

b)

Levodopa–Carbidopa (Sinemet)

c)

Memantine–Galantamine

d)

Dantrolene (Dantrium)

21.

A patient on Parkinson's medication should avoid high-protein meals because:

a)

Protein enhances drug absorption leading to toxicity

b)

Protein competes with levodopa transport and reduces effectiveness

c)

Protein increases orthostatic hypotension risk

d)

Protein causes dark urine to become lighter

22.

Which of the following is a teaching point for Parkinson's medications listed in the material?

a)

Take at bedtime to reduce agitation

b)

Avoid alcohol and opioids

c)

Rise slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension

d)

Stop baclofen abruptly if dizziness occurs

23.

For Alzheimer's disease, which medication class acts to increase acetylcholine or block NMDA/glutamate?

a)

Dopamine agonists

b)

Anticholinergics

c)

Cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine

d)

Benzodiazepines

24.

Which centrally acting muscle relaxant teaching point is correct?

a)

Driving is acceptable once sedation resolves

b)

Avoid alcohol; opioids and benzos can increase CNS depression

c)

Report constipation immediately

d)

Abruptly stop baclofen to prevent weakness

25.

What is the primary action of centrally acting muscle relaxants such as cyclobenzaprine and tizanidine?

a)

Directly relax skeletal muscle

b)

Increase dopamine in the CNS

c)

Cause CNS depression leading to decreased muscle spasm

d)

Block NMDA/glutamate receptors

26.

Which serious adverse effect is noted for centrally acting muscle relaxants?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Liver toxicity and blood disorders

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

27.

Dantrolene (Dantrium) is indicated for which condition among its uses?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension

b)

Malignant hyperthermia

c)

Alzheimer's agitation

d)

Parkinsonian tremor

28.

Which teaching point is specific to dantrolene?

a)

Combine therapy cautiously; caregiver safety emphasized

b)

Avoid sun and alcohol; monitor liver function tests

c)

Take at bedtime only

d)

No driving restrictions; report constipation

29.

Which interaction increases CNS depression when using centrally acting muscle relaxants?

a)

Anticholinesterase drugs

b)

Alcohol, opioids, benzodiazepines

c)

Levodopa–carbidopa

d)

Memantine

30.

Which adverse effect is shared by centrally acting muscle relaxants and should be communicated to patients?

a)

Sedation

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Dark urine

31.

Which best describes the primary action of neuromuscular blocking agents listed (e.g., succinylcholine, vecuronium)?

a)

Analgesia with sedation

b)

Paralysis with no pain relief or sedation

c)

Anti-inflammatory effect

d)

Anticonvulsant effect

32.

A patient receiving rocuronium for intubation develops apnea and respiratory failure due to the drug. Which reversal agent is specifically indicated for certain aminosteroid neuromuscular blockers?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Sugammadex

d)

Atropine

33.

Key safety measure after administering a neuromuscular blocking agent includes monitoring respirations for how long?

a)

4 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

34.

Which medication is used for prevention of uric acid buildup in gout rather than acute pain relief?

a)

Colchicine

b)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Morphine

35.

Which of the Six Rights of Medication Administration is missing from the following list: Right patient, Right drug, Right dose, Right route, Right time?

a)

Right documentation

b)

Right prescriber

c)

Right storage

d)

Right diagnosis

36.

Before giving medications, which action is recommended regarding autonomic nervous system (ANS) drugs?

a)

Crush extended-release tablets for faster absorption

b)

Verify heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Skip baseline labs to avoid delays

d)

Avoid checking allergies

37.

After administering a medication, which step is part of safe practice?

a)

Recheck vital signs and document time, route, and effect

b)

Encourage alcohol to reduce sedation

c)

Do not report shortness of breath if transient

d)

Avoid documenting to save time

38.

For neuro/musculo patients, which precaution helps prevent falls related to sedation?

a)

Remove call light to reduce confusion

b)

Keep call light within reach

c)

Encourage abrupt withdrawal from baclofen

d)

Withhold hydration in gout

39.

Which prevention strategy aligns with the complication of hepatotoxicity during medication therapy?

a)

Rise slowly and hydrate

b)

Avoid alcohol and monitor liver function tests (LFTs)

c)

CBC checks and report fever or bruising

d)

Monitor respiratory rate and have antidote ready

40.

Under what condition should beta blockers be held?

a)

Respiratory rate < 12

b)

Temperature > 38°C

c)

Heart rate < 60 or blood pressure < 100

d)

Oxygen saturation < 92%

41.

Which statement best describes evaluating outcomes after medication administration?

a)

Check whether side effects are present

b)

Confirm relief of symptoms indicates the medication is working

c)

Measure lab values only

d)

Ask the patient if the pill tasted bitter

42.

Which finding requires immediate reporting after medication administration?

a)

Mild nausea

b)

Jaundice, rash, confusion, or bleeding

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Transient dizziness upon standing

43.

A patient appears weak, sedated, or spastic after receiving medication. What is the primary safety concern?

a)

Electrolyte imbalance

b)

Fall risk

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Dehydration

44.

Combining an adrenergic drug with an MAOI most likely leads to which result?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Hypotensive shock

c)

Hypertensive crisis

d)

Serotonin syndrome

45.

What nursing action is recommended when a patient is taking a beta blocker and insulin?

a)

Hold insulin

b)

Monitor blood glucose closely because hypoglycemia may be masked

c)

Increase beta blocker dose

d)

Encourage high-carbohydrate foods

46.

Which combination is associated with severe dryness/confusion, warranting special monitoring in the elderly?

a)

Cholinergic + parasympathomimetic

b)

Anticholinergic + antihistamine

c)

Levodopa + MAOI

d)

Relaxant + opioid/benzo

47.

A patient on cholinergic medication is also prescribed a parasympathomimetic. What crisis should the nurse anticipate and be prepared to manage?

a)

Serotonin crisis

b)

Cholinergic crisis; keep atropine ready

c)

Addisonian crisis; start steroids

d)

Thyroid storm; give propranolol

48.

Which interaction reduces the effectiveness of levodopa and should be avoided?

a)

Levodopa + MAOI

b)

Levodopa + vitamin B6

c)

Selegiline + tyramine-rich foods

d)

Levodopa + opioid

49.

For a patient on selegiline, which dietary teaching prevents a serious reaction?

a)

Increase green leafy vegetables

b)

Avoid aged cheese and wine to prevent hypertensive crisis

c)

Limit salt intake

d)

Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day

50.

What is the priority nursing action when a muscle relaxant is combined with an opioid or benzodiazepine?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Ensure airway safety due to risk of respiratory depression

c)

Administer diuretics

d)

Monitor for hypertension

51.

A patient taking allopurinol with amoxicillin develops a rash suspicious for Stevens–Johnson syndrome. What should the nurse do?

a)

Apply topical steroids and continue therapy

b)

Report immediately

c)

Stop amoxicillin only

d)

Reassure the patient it will resolve spontaneously

52.

Which combination increases liver toxicity and should be avoided?

a)

Dantrolene + alcohol

b)

Levodopa + vitamin B6

c)

Beta blocker + insulin

d)

Anticholinergic + antihistamine

53.

A provider orders 100 mg PO of a medication. You have 50 mg tablets available. How many tablets should you administer?

a)

1 tablet

b)

2 tablets

c)

3 tablets

d)

4 tablets

54.

Calculate the infusion rate: 500 mL to be delivered over 4 hours via IV. What is the mL/hr rate?

a)

100 mL/hr

b)

125 mL/hr

c)

250 mL/hr

d)

500 mL/hr

55.

Which conversion is correct according to the table?

a)

1 mg = 100 mg

b)

1 L = 1000 mL

c)

1 tsp = 15 mL

d)

1 oz = 15 mL

56.

A patient weighs 4.4 lb. Approximately how many kilograms is this?

a)

1 kg

b)

2 kg

c)

0.5 kg

d)

10 kg

57.

Which benzodiazepine is listed as an example used for sleep disorders and is classified as a CNS depressant?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Ramelteon

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Flumazenil

58.

Which teaching point is most appropriate for non-benzodiazepine sleep aids like zolpidem or eszopiclone?

a)

Use long-term; minimal risk

b)

Take before bed only; can cause sleepwalking

c)

Keep available if respiratory rate decreases

d)

Short-term use due to dependence risk

59.

Which agent regulates the sleep cycle and is considered safe for long-term use?

a)

Temazepam

b)

Zaleplon

c)

Ramelteon

d)

Flumazenil

60.

What is the primary action of flumazenil in the context of sleep disorder pharmacology?

a)

Enhances melatonin receptors

b)

Provides sleep aid effects

c)

Reverses benzodiazepine overdose

d)

Prevents sleepwalking

61.

According to the memory tricks, which statement is accurate?

a)

Agonist = Brake; turns system OFF

b)

Agonist = Accelerate; turns system ON

c)

Blocker = Accelerate; turns system ON

d)

Blocker has no effect on system state

62.

Which mnemonic correctly links a cholinergic profile to its characteristic effects?

a)

Cholinergic = Wet (SLUDGE effects)

b)

Cholinergic = Dry (can’t see, pee, spit, or poop)

c)

Cholinergic = Brake brain (sedation)

d)

Cholinergic = Fixes Benzo (antidote)

63.

Which pairing matches the mnemonic with its meaning for gout management?

a)

Colchicine = Crampy tummy — GI upset warning

b)

Allopurinol = Always hydrate — antidote to benzodiazepines

c)

Dantrolene = Direct on muscle — prevents uric acid stones

d)

Benzo = Brake brain — SLUDGE effects