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Hematology Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Function of the RBC is:

a)

Immune system

b)

Production of hormones

c)

Transport of oxygen

d)

Transmission of nerve impulses

2.

Primary glycoproteins in RBC membrane are:

a)

Glycophorin

b)

Spectrin

c)

Heme

d)

Globin

3.

Sites that may undergo extramedullary hematopoiesis include:

a)

Liver, spleen

b)

Kidneys, pancreas

c)

Lungs, stomach, and intestines

d)

Bone marrow

4.

Fill in the blank: M-CSF is a type of cytokine to _______.

a)

platelets

b)

lymphs

c)

granulocytes

d)

monocytes

5.

Fill in the blank: Thrombopoietin is a cytokine to _______.

a)

platelets

b)

granulocytes

c)

RBCs

d)

lymphs

6.

What stain is used for Iron?

a)

Prussian blue stain (Perls' stain)

b)

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain

c)

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d)

Masson's trichrome stain

7.

What stain is used for Heinz bodies?

a)

Supravital stain (e.g., Crystal Violet)

b)

Gram stain

c)

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d)

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain

8.

Which of the following are components of Heme in Hemoglobin?

a)

Protoporphyrin

b)

Fe 3+

c)

Fe 2+

d)

Alpha chains

9.

In the context of respiratory movement, what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve when 2,3 DPG increases? Increase: ________

a)

Shift to the left

b)

Shift to the right

c)

No change

d)

Becomes linear

10.

Carboxyhemoglobin is:

a)

a compound formed when carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin

b)

a protein that transports oxygen in the blood

c)

an enzyme involved in digestion

d)

a hormone produced by the pancreas

11.

Given the following patient laboratory values: RBC = 2.00×106/μL2.00 \times 10^6/\mu L , HCT = 24%, HGB = 6.8 g/dL. Calculate the MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) in fL.

a)

100 fL

b)

80 fL

c)

60 fL

d)

120 fL

12.

A patient has an MCV of 95 and an RDW of 22.3. The findings on the slide that will correlate with these results are:

a)

Normocytic red blood cells with significant variation in size (anisocytosis)

b)

Microcytic red blood cells with uniform size

c)

Macrocytic red blood cells with no variation in size

d)

Normocytic red blood cells with no variation in size

13.

A patient comes to the ER with vomiting over the last 72 hours, Hgb is 15.0 and Hct is 59%. What do you suspect?

a)

Hemoconcentration due to dehydration

b)

Acute blood loss

c)

Chronic anemia

d)

Renal failure

14.

A patient has moderately severe hemolytic anemia with decreased MCV and poikilocytosis. New methylene blue stain shows RBCs with "golf ball" appearance. Which thalassemia is most likely?

a)

Hemoglobin Bart's

b)

Alpha thalassemia minor

c)

Hemoglobin H disease

d)

Beta thalassemia major

15.

What is one cause of macrocytic anemia?

a)

Enzyme deficiency

b)

Alcoholism

c)

Chronic blood loss

d)

Thalassemia

16.

Which of the following is a type of normocytic normochromic anemia?

a)

Aplastic

b)

Microcytic anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

17.

Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia?

a)

Hereditary spherocytosis

b)

Hemoglobinopathies

c)

MAHA

d)

G6PD deficiency

18.

Hgb C Peripheral picture: ____________

a)

Target cells (red blood cells with a central area of pigmentation)

b)

Spherocytes (small, round, dense red blood cells)

c)

Schistocytes (fragmented red blood cells)

d)

Howell-Jolly bodies (red blood cells with nuclear remnants)

19.

What type of anemia is this?

(a)  

20.

What is this?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

21.

What does this slide possibly detect?

(a)  

22.

This anemia is due to disruption of heme synthesis and characteristics include increased RDW, decreased MCHC, decreased reticulocytes, and an increase in serum iron and ferritin.

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

IDA

c)

ACD

d)

Sideroblastic anemia

23.

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

(a)  

24.

Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by a defect in the RBC membrane. Which membrane protein is NOT a cause of HS?

a)

spectrin

b)

GPI-55

c)

ankyrin

d)

band 3

25.

This anemia is caused by an enzyme disorder from the hexose monophosphate (pentose phosphate) shunt:

a)

G6PD deficiency

b)

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

c)

Methemoglobin reductase deficiency

26.

Hemoglobin electrophoresis in acidic media has the following pattern from cathode to anode:

a)

F, A, S, C

b)

F, C, A, S

c)

A, F, S, C

d)

A, C, F, S

27.

Primary granules of a neutrophil contain:

a)

lactoferrin

b)

lysozyme

c)

alkaline phosphatase

d)

myeloperoxidase

28.

The CD marker for monocytes is

(a)  

29.

Which is not a normal WBC percentage in peripheral blood?

a)

65% segs

b)

28% lymphs

c)

2% eosinophils

d)

20% monocytes

30.

Which is NOT a change that occurs as a lymph becomes reactive?

a)

Azurophilic granules appear

b)

Indented nucleus with nucleoli

c)

Dark blue cytoplasm with white clearing near nucleus

d)

Large pseudopoding cytoplasm

31.

A new born has a CBC performed. The WBC count is 14 x103 and 52 NRBCs were counted in the differential. What is the corrected WBC?

(a)  

32.

This WBC disorder causes severe recurrent infections due to dysfunction in oxygen dependent respiratory burst in the phagosome.

a)

chediak higashi

b)

chronic granulomatous disease

c)

alder reilly

d)

pelger huet

33.

What is depicted in this image?

(a)  

34.

MDS with excess blasts might includes all of the following except:

a)

Tilineage cytopenia

b)

Auer rods

c)

Infection due to agranular WBCs

d)

5q deletion

35.

Which curve represents beta chain formation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

In normal adult bone marrow, the most common granulocyte is:

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Metamyelocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Band neutrophil

37.

Which RBC morphology may be seen in a treated PV patient?

a)

microcytic cells

b)

macrocytic cells

c)

teardrops

d)

helmet cells

38.

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a complication of:

a)

CML

b)

CLL

c)

ALL

d)

PV

39.

The cell of diagnostic importance in Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:

a)

Lymphoblast

b)

LH cell

c)

Reed-Sternberg cell

d)

Plasma cell

40.


A 30-year old man who had been diagnosed as having leukemia 2 years previously was readmitted because of cervical lymphadenopathy. Laboratory findings included the following:
CBC:
-WBC: 39.6 X106/μL
-RBC: 3.25 X106/μL -Segs: 37
-Hgb: 9.4 g/dL -Meta: 8
-Hct: 28.2 % -Myelo: 8
-MCV: 86.7 fL -Promyelos: 10
-MCH: 29.0 pg/RBC -Blasts: 26
-MCHC: 33.4 g/dL -Eos: 2
-Platelet: 53.0 X106/μL -Basos: 4 -Lymphs: 3
-Monos: 2
-NRBC: 11/100 WBC
-Bone marrow: 95% cellularity, 50% blast cells some with peroxidase and ---Sudan black B positivity.
-Philadelphia chromosome: positive

a)

CML

b)

CML with blast crisis

c)

PMF

d)

AML

41.

A patient with leukemia has blasts positive for TdT, CD34, CD22, CD19 positive. What is the most likely possibility?

a)

Sezary syndrome

b)

Mature B leukemia

c)

T ALL

d)

B ALL

42.

Gene associated with T cell ALL

(a)  

43.

Which is most associated with the cell pictured?

a)

AML

b)

ALL

c)

CLL

d)

CML

44.

Myelomonocytic AML with eosinophilia

a)

AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22.1);RUNX1/RUNX1T1

b)

AML with inv(16)(p13.1q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22);CBFB-MYH11

c)

AML with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) KMT2A-MLLT3

d)

AML with inversion(3) or t(3;3) GATA2-MECOM

45.

CD33, CD13, CD15, CD117, CD34, and HLADR positive blasts with at least 10% of maturing cells from neutrophil line

a)

M0

b)

M1

c)

M2

d)

M3

46.

Which is associated with favorable CLL prognosis?

a)

ZAP 70

b)

CD 38+

c)

IgHv mutation

d)

CD 5 +

47.

Treatment for CML is:

(a)  

48.

A patient has a decreased WBC, RBC and platelets. Teardrops and NRBCs are observed in the PB smear. A bone marrow is collected and had no spicules. Molecular testing demonstrated JAK2 mutation. What is most likely?

a)

PMF

b)

ET

c)

MDS

d)

CML

49.

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell cancer with clinical signs including bone lesions, M spike on SPE with IgG, and all of the following:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Bence jones protein in urine

d)

Neurologic involvement

50.

Which of the following cells is most likely identified in lesions of mycosis fungoides?

a)

Mast cells

b)

B cells

c)

T cells

d)

Prolymphs

51.

Von Willebrand platelet receptor?

a)

GpIb/IX/V

b)

GP IIb/IIIa

c)

GP Ib/IIa

d)

Gp V/VII

52.

The intrinsic pathway begins with:

a)

VII

b)

XII

c)

X

d)

IX

53.

A prolonged PT and aPTT could indicate:

a)

Extrinsic pathway disruption

b)

Dysfibrinogenemia

c)

Hemophilia A

d)

TTP

54.

How does clopidogrel(Plavix) inhibit platelets?

a)

Thromboxane A2 inhibitor

b)

Cyclooxygenase inhibitor

c)

ADP inhibitor

d)

GPIIbIIIa inhibitor

55.

Platelet alpha granules contain:

a)

vWF

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Factor VIII

d)

All of the above

56.

Platelet disorder in which the abnormality is due to a defect in platelet aggregation:

a)

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

b)

VWD

c)

Bernard soulier

d)

ITP

57.

To distinguish between hemophilia and von Willebrand disease, a patient with von Willebrand will present with which of the following test results
A aPTT (abnormal) platelet screen (normal) ristocetin cofactor (normal)
B aPTT (normal) platelet screen (abnormal) ristocetin cofactor (normal)
C aPTT (abnormal) platelet screen (abnormal) ristocetin cofactor (abnormal)
D aPTT (normal) platelet screen (normal) ristocetin cofactor (abnormal)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

58.

An decreased maximum amplitude indicates _____________ and ____________ should be given to the patient.

a)

hypocoagulability; plasma

b)

hypercoagulability; cryo

c)

hypercoagulability; platelets

d)

hypocoagulability; platelets

59.

A patient with XIII deficiency would have:

a)

Delayed bleeding

b)

Increased aPTT

c)

soluble clot with 5M urea

d)

Decreased factor activity via assay

60.

Heparin acts with _____________ to inhibit coagulation

a)

Plasmin

b)

TPA

c)

Thrombin

d)

AT3

61.

HIT is an immune mediated complication associated with heparin therapy. Antibodies are produced against:

a)

ACLA

b)

PF4

c)

AT

d)

B2GP1

62.

What is the usual factor level in a hemophiliac patient with spontaneous bleeding?

a)

<1%

b)

5-30%

c)

1-20%

d)

30-60%

63.

A confirmation of factor V Leiden indicates:

a)

Protein C resistance with thrombotic complications

b)

Protein S resistance with thrombotic complications

c)

A factor inhibitor

d)

Protein C resistance with bleeding complications

64.

The DRVVT will be prolonged in a patient with lupus anticoagulant due to the reagent containing:

a)

decreased concentration of phospholipids

b)

increased concentration of phospholipids

c)

bilayer phospholipids

d)

phospholipid deficiency

65.

The first factor effected by Warfarin:

(a)  

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