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WorksheetsBLEPP Optimized Items Short
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 49mins
A 24-year-old man presents with auditory hallucinations, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal for 7 months. There is no history of mood episodes. Which diagnosis is MOST appropriate?
A. Brief psychotic disorder
B. Schizophreniform disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Schizoaffective disorder
A woman has delusions for 2 years but maintains occupational functioning and has no hallucinations. Which diagnosis BEST fits?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Delusional disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Brief psychotic disorder
Which symptom MOST strongly predicts poor functional outcome in schizophrenia?
A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions
C. Negative symptoms
D. Disorganized behavior
A patient experiences hallucinations during manic episodes and continues to have hallucinations even when mood symptoms remit. Diagnosis?
A. Bipolar disorder with psychotic features
B. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
C. Schizophrenia
D. Schizoaffective disorder
Which finding MOST supports a neurobiological etiology of schizophrenia?
A. Childhood trauma
B. Family expressed emotion
C. Dopamine hyperactivity in mesolimbic pathway
D. Cultural stressors
A 16-year-old repeatedly violates school rules, lies, and shows aggression toward peers. There is no remorse. Diagnosis?
A. Oppositional defiant disorder
B. ADHD
C. Conduct disorder
D. Antisocial personality disorder
Which feature distinguishes substance dependence from substance abuse (DSM-IV concept still tested contextually)?
A. Legal problems
B. Tolerance
C. Social impairment
D. Risky use
A patient relapses into gambling after financial loss despite insight into consequences. This behavior is BEST explained by dysfunction in which brain system?
A. Limbic threat system
B. Reward circuitry
C. Motor cortex
D. Visual association cortex
Which diagnosis requires violation of others’ rights PLUS age ≥18?
A. Conduct disorder
B. ODD
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Intermittent explosive disorder
Which pattern MOST suggests substance-induced psychosis rather than schizophrenia?
A. Gradual onset
B. Family history of psychosis
C. Psychosis resolves after abstinence
D. Negative symptoms
A patient presents with paralysis following trauma, but neurological tests are normal. The symptom is NOT intentionally produced. Diagnosis?
A. Factitious disorder
B. Malingering
C. Conversion disorder
D. Illness anxiety disorder
Which factor MOST differentiates illness anxiety disorder from somatic symptom disorder?
A. Health-related anxiety
B. Number of symptoms
C. Presence of actual somatic complaints
D. Level of insight
Which model BEST explains how stress, personality, and immune response interact?
A. Biomedical
B. Behavioral
C. Biopsychosocial
D. Psychoanalytic
Which personality trait increases risk for stress-related illness?
A. Optimism
B. Hardiness
C. Neuroticism
D. Resilience
Which intervention has the STRONGEST empirical support for stress management?
A. Free association
B. CBT
C. Hypnosis
D. Dream analysis
A 19-year-old female restricts food intake, has intense fear of weight gain, distorted body image, and BMI below normal. Which feature MOST differentiates anorexia nervosa from bulimia nervosa?
A. Body dissatisfaction
B. Binge eating episodes
C. Significantly low body weight
D. Compensatory behaviors
A patient reports recurrent binge eating without compensatory behaviors and significant distress. Diagnosis?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Binge-eating disorder
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Which sleep disorder is characterized by sudden episodes of muscle weakness triggered by strong emotions?
A. Sleep paralysis
B. Insomnia
C. Narcolepsy
D. REM sleep behavior disorder
A middle-aged man acts out his dreams and later develops memory impairment. This sleep disorder is MOST associated with:
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Mood disorders
C. Neurocognitive disorders
D. Eating disorders
Which feature BEST differentiates night terrors from nightmares?
A. Presence of fear
B. Dream recall
C. Autonomic arousal
D. Occurrence during REM sleep
Repeated cessation of breathing during sleep leading to daytime fatigue suggests:
A. Insomnia
B. Narcolepsy
C. Sleep apnea
D. Parasomnia
Which hormone primarily regulates circadian rhythm?
A. Cortisol
B. Dopamine
C. Melatonin
D. Serotonin
Which treatment has the STRONGEST evidence base for eating disorders?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. CBT
C. Aversion therapy
D. ECT
Which disorder involves fear of weight gain WITHOUT binge eating?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. BED
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. ARFID
Excessive daytime sleepiness PLUS cataplexy indicates dysfunction of:
A. Melatonin regulation
B. Hypothalamic orexin system
C. Reticular activating system
D. Pineal gland
A diagnosis of sexual dysfunction REQUIRES:
A. Moral objection
B. Cultural disapproval
C. Clinically significant distress
D. Presence of paraphilia
A man persistently fails to maintain an erection despite desire and causes distress. Diagnosis?
A. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
B. Erectile disorder
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Sexual aversion disorder
Which paraphilic disorder involves sexual arousal from observing unsuspecting individuals?
A. Exhibitionistic disorder
B. Voyeuristic disorder
C. Fetishistic disorder
D. Sexual sadism
Distress due to incongruence between assigned sex and experienced gender defines:
A. Transvestic disorder
B. Sexual identity disorder
C. Gender dysphoria
D. Paraphilic disorder
Which criterion differentiates gender dysphoria from non-pathological gender variance?
A. Cross-dressing
B. Duration
C. Distress or impairment
D. Gender expression
Sexual dysfunctions require a minimum duration of:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Performance anxiety–related sexual dysfunction is BEST treated with:
A. Antipsychotics
B. CBT
C. Aversion therapy
D. Hormonal suppression
Which is NOT classified as a paraphilic disorder?
A. Voyeuristic disorder
B. Fetishistic disorder
C. Gender dysphoria
D. Sexual masochism disorder
Premature ejaculation is MOST associated with dysfunction in:
A. Desire phase
B. Arousal phase
C. Orgasm phase
D. Resolution phase
Affirmative psychological care for gender dysphoria prioritizes:
A. Behavior suppression
B. Conversion therapy
C. Client well-being and identity support
D. Pharmacological restraint
Persistent deficits in social communication PLUS restricted behaviors indicate:
A. ADHD
B. ASD
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Intellectual disability
Which criterion is REQUIRED for intellectual disability?
A. IQ below 75
B. Academic difficulty
C. Adaptive functioning deficits
D. Language impairment
ADHD diagnosis requires symptoms in:
A. One setting
B. Two or more settings
C. School only
D. Home only
The STRONGEST etiological factor for ASD is:
A. Parenting style
B. Trauma
C. Genetic factors
D. Media exposure
Early intervention in ASD primarily aims to improve:
A. Intelligence
B. Social communication
C. Motor coordination
D. Emotional regulation only
Which ADHD symptom cluster is MOST associated with academic failure?
A. Hyperactivity
B. Impulsivity
C. Inattention
D. Oppositional behavior
Learning disorder is characterized by impairment in:
A. Social skills
B. Specific academic skills
C. Adaptive behavior
D. Motor skills
ASD symptoms must be present during:
A. Adolescence
B. Early developmental period
C. Late childhood
D. Adulthood
Which treatment approach has strongest support for ADHD?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. CBT only
C. Behavioral therapy + medication
D. ECT
Which domain is LEAST affected in ADHD?
A. Attention
B. Executive function
C. Intelligence
D. Impulse control
Acute onset, fluctuating consciousness, and attention deficits indicate:
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Delirium
C. Mild NCD
D. Major NCD
The MOST common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is:
A. Vascular disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. HIV
Visual hallucinations with parkinsonian symptoms suggest:
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Frontotemporal dementia
D. Vascular dementia
Which cognitive domain is typically impaired FIRST in Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Language
B. Attention
C. Memory
D. Executive function
Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects:
A. Memory
B. Personality and behavior
C. Attention
D. Visual perception
Mild neurocognitive disorder differs from major NCD by:
A. Presence of hallucinations
B. Preserved independence
C. Acute onset
D. Fluctuating awareness
Delirium is MOST commonly caused by:
A. Genetics
B. Infection or substances
C. Personality traits
D. Aging alone
Which is NOT a cognitive domain?
A. Attention
B. Memory
C. Mood
D. Executive function
Progressive, irreversible decline MOST suggests:
A. Delirium
B. Mild NCD
C. Major NCD
D. Amnestic disorder
Diagnosis of NCD requires decline from:
A. Birth
B. Previous functioning
C. Educational level
D. Cultural norms
Fear of abandonment, impulsivity, and unstable relationships indicate:
A. Histrionic PD
B. Narcissistic PD
C. Borderline PD
D. Dependent PD
Which cluster is described as odd or eccentric?
A. Cluster A
B. Cluster B
C. Cluster C
D. Mixed
Persistent violation of others’ rights with lack of remorse indicates:
A. Borderline PD
B. Narcissistic PD
C. Antisocial PD
D. Avoidant PD
Which personality disorder involves grandiosity and need for admiration?
A. Histrionic PD
B. Narcissistic PD
C. Dependent PD
D. Avoidant PD
Personality disorders are BEST described as:
A. Episodic illnesses
B. Acute reactions
C. Enduring behavior patterns
D. Neurocognitive conditions
Cluster C personality disorders are characterized by:
A. Oddness
B. Dramatic behavior
C. Anxiety and fearfulness
D. Psychosis
Which is NOT a Cluster B disorder?
A. Antisocial
B. Borderline
C. Histrionic
D. Avoidant
Avoidant personality disorder is MOST associated with:
A. Grandiosity
B. Fear of criticism and rejection
C. Aggression
D. Impulsivity
Personality disorders typically begin in:
A. Childhood
B. Adolescence or early adulthood
C. Middle adulthood
D. Late adulthood
The MOST appropriate general treatment approach for personality disorders is:
A. Medication alone
B. Long-term psychotherapy
C. ECT
D. Aversion therapy
