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NSG 2311 Exam 1 Summer 2025 - Worksheet Questions Extraction

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has angina pectoris and a new prescription to apply a nitroglycerin transdermal patch daily at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

a)

Fold used patch with medication area to the inside and discard in a closed receptacle.

b)

Put a second patch in place if angina pain occurs.

c)

Keep a nitroglycerin patch in place 24 hr per day.

d)

Shave excess hair from skin before applying a nitroglycerin patch.

2.

A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients who take digoxin. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing digoxin toxicity?

a)

A client who takes glyburide, a sulfonylurea, for type 2 diabetes mellitus

b)

A client who takes furosemide, a loop diuretic, for hypertension

c)

A client who takes cimetidine, an H2 blocker, to reduce gastric acid secretion

d)

A client who takes azelastine, an antihistamine, for allergic rhinitis

3.

A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a)

It usually takes at least 2 to 3 days for heparin to dissolve a clot.

b)

The time it takes heparin to dissolve clots varies between clients.

c)

Heparin prevents new clots from forming rather than dissolving established clots.

d)

The time it takes for heparin to dissolve a clot depends on the size of the clot.

4.

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin intravenously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Obtain an infusion pump to regulate the continuous flow of the medication.

b)

Verify that a dose of vitamin K is available as an antidote.

c)

Insert an indwelling catheter to monitor closely the client’s urine output.

d)

Schedule the client’s prothrombin time (PT) to be drawn at regular intervals.

5.

A nurse is administering morning medications and realizes that nifedipine was administered to the wrong client. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

a)

Check the client’s vital signs.

b)

Notify the charge nurse.

c)

Fill out an occurrence report according to institutional policy.

d)

Document an objective description of what has happened in the client’s chart.

6.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. The nurse should use the results of which of the following diagnostic tests to monitor the effect of this therapy?

a)

Prothrombin time (PT)

b)

Platelet count

c)

White blood cell count (WBC)

d)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

7.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

a)

You may take up to five nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 3 min intervals if chest pain occurs.

b)

If you experience a headache after taking nitroglycerin, stop taking the medication and notify your provider immediately.

c)

You should keep an emergency supply of nitroglycerin tablets in a plastic container with other medications for each day.

d)

If your mouth is dry, take a sip of water before putting the tablet under your tongue.

8.

A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain. The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

a)

It sounds as if you are allergic to this medication.

b)

A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.

c)

A headache indicates tolerance to the medication.

d)

Your headache is probably a result of anxiety about the chest pain.

9.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty and is to continue use of enoxaparin (Lovenox) at home. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

I will return to the clinic for laboratory testing weekly.

b)

I will avoid eating foods that are high in vitamin K, such as broccoli and spinach.

c)

I will need to give myself an injection in my abdomen twice a day.

d)

I will need to take this medication for two weeks.

10.

A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to reverse heparin’s effects?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Acetylcysteine

d)

Deferoxamine

11.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

a)

Serum potassium

b)

Serum amylase

c)

Serum triglyceride

d)

Serum cholesterol

12.

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer to the client? (Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

(a)  

13.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking warfarin and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Heparin

c)

Prednisone

d)

Ferrous sulfate

14.

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Before administering this medication, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Offer the client a light snack.

b)

Check the client’s blood pressure.

c)

Measure the client’s apical pulse.

d)

Weigh the client.

15.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is to start using a nitroglycerine transdermal unit for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

a)

Cut the patches in half to save money.

b)

Remove the patch each evening to have 10 hr without medication.

c)

Apply an additional patch during an angina attack.

d)

Remove the patch if you develop a headache.

16.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Administer up to four tablets over 10 min.

b)

Lie down upon onset of chest pain.

c)

Store the tablets in the refrigerator.

d)

Swallow the tablets whole.

17.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Atropine

c)

Protamine

d)

Vitamin K

18.

A nurse is assisting with a presentation about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse should explain that which of the following medications can put clients at risk for hyperkalemia?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Mannitol

d)

Spironolactone

19.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Potassium

c)

Total cholesterol

d)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

20.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

a)

Crackles in bases of lungs

b)

Peripheral edema

c)

Ascites

d)

Potassium 2.8 mEq/L

21.

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking atenolol. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this medication?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Headache

c)

Cough

d)

Constipation

22.

A nurse is preparing to administer hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO. The amount available is hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

0.5 tablet(s)

b)

1 tablet(s)

c)

2 tablet(s)

d)

0.25 tablet(s)

23.

A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who has heart failure and has a potassium level of 2.4 mEq/L. The nurse should identify which of the following medications as a possible cause of the client's potassium level?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Spironolactone

24.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily for heart failure. The client's current vital signs are: BP 144/96, heart rate 54/min, respirations 18/min, and temperature 37.8°C (98.6°F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Administer digoxin 0.125 mg.

b)

Administer digoxin 0.25 mg.

c)

Withhold the digoxin dose for elevated BP.

d)

Withhold the digoxin dose for decreased heart rate.

25.

A nurse is collecting data from a client prior to administering atenolol. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

a)

Heart rate 50/min

b)

Oxygen saturation 95%

c)

Respiratory rate 18/min

d)

Blood pressure 160/94 mm Hg

26.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for metoprolol. The nurse measures the client's vital signs and notes that the client's apical heart rate is 49/min. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Atropine

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Neostigmine

27.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has heart failure, prior to the administration of furosemide. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

a)

Blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg

b)

Serum potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L

c)

Oxygen saturation of 95%

d)

Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L

28.

A nurse observes a newly licensed nurse administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously using a pre-filled syringe. Which of the following indicates appropriate medication administration?

a)

Inserting the needle into the tissue using a 30-degree angle

b)

Transferring the medication into a U-100 insulin syringe for injection

c)

Removing the air bubble from the prefilled syringe prior to administration

d)

Administering the injection 6.35 cm (2.5 in) from the umbilicus

29.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving clopidogrel (Plavix), an antiplatelet medication, following the placement of a cardiac stent. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

a)

Constipation

b)

Hypotension

c)

Black stools

d)

Hypothermia

30.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis, who received IV heparin for the past 5 days, and now has a new prescription for oral warfarin in addition to the heparin. The client asks the nurse if both medications are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

a)

Heparin enhances the effects of the warfarin.

b)

I will ask the charge nurse to call your provider and get an explanation.

c)

Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.

d)

Heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

31.

A nurse is preparing to perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

a)

I will be placing some electrodes on your scalp.

b)

Be sure to wear this equipment for the next 24 hours.

c)

Try to remain still once I have attached the gel pads.

d)

You might feel some slight tingling during the procedure.

32.

What is the primary concern with life-threatening dysrhythmias?

a)

Increased cardiac output

b)

Decreased cardiac output

c)

Improved tissue perfusion

d)

Enhanced heart rate control

33.

Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Atropine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Verapamil

34.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?

a)

Chronic dry cough

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Weight gain

35.

Which of the following is a primary cause of peripheral vascular disease?

a)

Cigarette smoking

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Hyperlipidemia

d)

Sedentary lifestyle

36.

What condition is most commonly associated with peripheral vascular disease leading to limb amputation?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Seasonal allergies

c)

Asthma

d)

Appendicitis

37.

Which of the following is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Jugular vein distention

c)

Pulmonary congestion

d)

Abdominal distention

38.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and has been taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily. The client refuses breakfast and reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a)

Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.

b)

Request a dietary consult.

c)

Check the client's vital signs.

d)

Request an order for an antiemetic.

39.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Frothy sputum

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Orthopnea

d)

Peripheral edema

40.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Frothy sputum

b)

Dependent edema

c)

Nocturnal polyuria

d)

Jugular distention

41.

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

a)

"I am gaining weight."

b)

"I am constipated."

c)

"My vision seems yellow."

d)

"My tongue is red and beefy."

42.

A nurse observes a client with signs of worsening heart failure, including a weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) and generalized edema since the last visit 3 days ago. Which action should the nurse take next?

a)

Notify the RN case manager of the change in status.

b)

Document the findings and continue with the visit.

c)

Ensure the client has been taking their prescribed diuretic.

d)

Reinforce the importance of daily weights.

43.

A nurse is collecting data on a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse expect?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Crackles in lungs

c)

Chest pain

d)

Heart murmur

44.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and reports a recent bothersome non-productive cough. Which medication should the nurse associate with this adverse effect?

a)

Captopril

b)

Furosemide

c)

Digoxin

d)

Metoprolol

45.

Why is daily weight monitoring important for a client with heart failure?

a)

To assess the effectiveness of dietary modifications.

b)

To detect fluid retention that could indicate worsening heart failure.

c)

To ensure the client is gaining muscle mass.

d)

To evaluate the client's adherence to medication.

46.

A client with heart failure reports a weight gain of 5 lbs in one day. What is the most likely explanation for this change?

a)

Increased muscle mass

b)

Fluid retention

c)

Improved appetite

d)

Bone density changes

47.

Which symptom, along with weight gain, should alert a nurse to possible heart failure exacerbation?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Improved energy levels

d)

Frequent headaches

48.

When is the best time for a patient with heart failure to check their daily weight?

a)

Before going to bed

b)

After breakfast

c)

Immediately after waking up, before breakfast

d)

After a shower

49.

Anticoagulants primarily work through which mechanism?

a)

They inhibit platelet aggregation.

b)

They prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

c)

They enhance the action of vitamin K.

d)

They dissolve existing blood clots.

50.

Why is it important to monitor PT and INR levels in patients taking warfarin?

a)

To ensure the patient's liver function is normal.

b)

To assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy.

c)

To diagnose potential vitamin K deficiency.

d)

To check for renal impairment.

51.

Which laboratory test is most appropriate for monitoring the anticoagulant effect of heparin?

a)

INR (International Normalized Ratio)

b)

aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)

c)

CBC (Complete Blood Count)

d)

D-dimer

52.

What is the primary purpose of using a sequential compression device in thrombus prevention?

a)

To keep leg muscles from weakening

b)

To promote venous return in the legs

c)

To prevent skin sores

d)

To enhance joint flexibility

53.

Which of the following foods should be avoided while taking Coumadin due to their high vitamin K content?

a)

Leafy green vegetables

b)

Citrus fruits

c)

Lean meats

d)

Whole grains

54.

Why is it recommended to avoid alcohol while taking Coumadin?

a)

It can increase the risk of bleeding.

b)

It causes headaches.

c)

It reduces Coumadin absorption.

d)

It leads to dehydration.

55.

Which of the following medications is classified as a beta blocker?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Metformin

c)

Propranolol

d)

Simvastatin

56.

How does IV lidocaine used for dysrhythmias differ from lidocaine used as a local anesthetic?

a)

It is administered at a different rate

b)

It has different adverse effects

c)

It has different therapeutic uses

d)

It is contraindicated for certain conditions

57.

A nurse is calculating a client's intake and output for an 8-hr shift. The client's intake included 1,000 mL 0.9% sodium chloride IV solution, one 6-oz cup of coffee, 6 oz of water, one 180-mL bowl of soup, 3 oz of flavored gelatin, and 3 oz of ice cream. How many mL should the nurse document as the client's total intake for the shift?

a)

1260 mL

b)

1450 mL

c)

1720 mL

d)

1800 mL

58.

If a client's apical pulse is recorded at 55/min before administering digoxin, what should the nurse do?

a)

Administer digoxin and monitor closely.

b)

Hold the medication and notify the provider.

c)

Administer digoxin and document the heart rate.

d)

Give a smaller dose of digoxin.

59.

Which symptom should a nurse observe for as a potential side effect of digoxin?

a)

Headache

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Dry mouth

60.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the interaction between Coumadin and Vitamin K in reducing effects with a high INR?

a)

Consuming foods high in Vitamin K can decrease the anticoagulant effects of Coumadin.

b)

Coumadin and Vitamin K have a synergistic effect in increasing the anticoagulant properties.

c)

Increasing the intake of Vitamin K-rich foods while on Coumadin can improve the medication's effectiveness.

d)

Coumadin and Vitamin K do not interact, and their effects are independent of each other.

61.

Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker that inhibits the entry of calcium into smooth

muscle cells?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Verapamil

c)

Captopril

d)

Lisinopril