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CBNS: 106-Summer 2025 Practice Final

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which scientist is credited with supporting the neuron doctrine?

a)

Golgi

b)

Cajal

c)

Descartes

d)

Galvani

2.

The term 'equilibrium potential' refers to:

a)

Membrane potential at rest

b)

Voltage when two neurons fire

c)

The point where electrical and concentration gradients balance for an ion

d)

Difference between sodium and potassium flux

3.

The Nernst equation calculates the equilibrium potential of an ion. What is the equilibrium potential (E_K⁺) if [K⁺]_in = 100 mM and [K⁺]_out = 5 mM at body temperature?

a)

+61 mV

b)

-61 mV

c)

-80 mV

d)

0 mV

4.

The main function of astrocytes in the CNS includes:

a)

Forming myelin

b)

Scavenging debris

c)

Buffering potassium and supporting neurons metabolically

d)

Conducting action potentials

5.

Which component of a neuron is critical for initiating the action potential?

a)

Soma

b)

Axon

c)

Axon hillock

d)

Dendrites

6.

Using the simplified Nernst equation (E = 61 × log([ion]_out / [ion]_in)), what is the E_Na⁺ if [Na⁺]_out = 145 mM and [Na⁺]_in = 15 mM?

a)

+61 mV

b)

-61 mV

c)

-80 mV

d)

0 mV

7.

Which of the following channels opens during the rising phase of an action potential?

a)

Voltage-gated K+ channels

b)

Ligand-gated Na+ channels

c)

Voltage-gated Na+ channels

8.

The refractory period ensures:

a)

Backward propagation of action potentials

b)

Continuous depolarization

c)

One-way transmission of action potentials

d)

Sustained calcium influx

9.

At rest, the neuronal membrane is most permeable to which ion?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Chloride

d)

Potassium

10.

The function of the sodium-potassium pump is to:

a)

Equalize Na+ and K+ gradients

b)

Move Na+ out and K+ into the cell against their gradients

c)

Propagate action potentials

d)

Block ion channels

11.

Electrical synapses allow ions to pass through specialized proteins called:

a)

Synapsins

b)

Connexins

c)

Dynamins

d)

Calmodulins

12.

In the central nervous system, which glial cells myelinate axons?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Microglia

13.

Which neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft via enzymatic degradation?

a)

GABA

b)

Glutamate

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Dopamine

14.

Which neurotransmitter system is primarily excitatory in the brain?

a)

Dopaminergic

b)

GABAergic

c)

Glutamatergic

d)

Cholinergic

15.

G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) activate which kind of intracellular molecules?

a)

Ion channels

b)

Enzymes only

c)

Second messengers

d)

Neurotransmitters

16.

The endocannabinoids are unique neurotransmitters because they:

a)

Are stored in vesicles

b)

Bind to ionotropic receptors

c)

Are synthesized on demand

d)

Only exist in the spinal cord

17.

The amplitude of graded potentials depends on:

a)

The intensity of the stimulus

b)

The number of action potentials

c)

Sodium channel inactivation

d)

Myelin thickness

18.

Which receptor type is both ionotropic and involved in fast synaptic transmission?

a)

Muscarinic

b)

GABAB

c)

Nicotinic

d)

Dopamine D2

19.

Temporal summation requires:

a)

One input occurring quickly in succession

b)

Multiple neurons firing simultaneously

c)

Action potentials at the soma

d)

Vesicle depletion

20.

Which molecule is responsible for vesicle fusion in neurotransmitter release?

a)

Calcium

b)

SNARE proteins

c)

ATP

d)

Acetylcholine

21.

The Goldman equation accounts for:

a)

Concentration gradients of a single ion

b)

Passive diffusion only

c)

Multiple ion permeabilities

d)

Graded potentials

22.

During the falling phase of an action potential, which channel is primarily open?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Chloride

23.

Which retinal cells are responsible for detecting low light conditions?

a)

Rods

b)

Cones

c)

Ganglion cells

d)

Bipolar cells

24.

The fovea is specialized for:

a)

Color blindness

b)

High acuity vision

c)

Peripheral vision

d)

Low light detection

25.

The auditory ossicles function to:

a)

Detect sound waves

b)

Convert vibrations into fluid waves

c)

Amplify sound to the cochlea

d)

Activate hair cells directly

26.

Which fluid in the cochlea contains a high concentration of potassium?

a)

Perilymph

b)

Endolymph

c)

Cerebrospinal fluid

d)

Plasma

27.

Which receptor detects fine touch and vibration near the skin surface?

a)

Ruffini’s ending

b)

Pacinian corpuscle

c)

Meissner’s corpuscle

d)

Merkel’s disk

28.

Which structure controls reflexive eye movement in response to visual stimuli?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Superior colliculus

c)

LGN

d)

Retina

29.

Which taste modality is detected by direct Na+ influx?

a)

Bitter

b)

Sweet

c)

Umami

d)

Salty

30.

TRPV1 receptors are involved in detecting:

a)

Cold

b)

Sweet taste

c)

Heat and capsaicin

d)

Proprioception

31.

The dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway transmits:

a)

Pain and temperature

b)

Light and sound

c)

Touch and proprioception

d)

Vision and balance

32.

Which structure is key in forming long-term declarative memories?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Prefrontal cortex

33.

The cerebellum is essential for:

a)

Hormone regulation

b)

Memory consolidation

c)

Coordinated movement

d)

Olfactory processing

34.

Which motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?

a)

Beta

b)

Gamma

c)

Alpha

d)

Delta

35.

Which descending tract is primarily responsible for voluntary motor control?

a)

Rubrospinal tract

b)

Vestibulospinal tract

c)

Corticospinal tract

d)

Tectospinal tract

36.

A patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome would most likely experience:

a)

Loss of touch on one side and pain on the opposite

b)

Bilateral blindness

c)

Global amnesia

d)

Loss of hearing in both ears

37.

What sensory coding strategy helps distinguish odor identity?

a)

Temporal coding

b)

Frequency coding

c)

Population coding

d)

Spatial coding

38.

Which protein binds calcium to trigger muscle contraction?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

39.

The ventral stream of visual processing is associated with:

a)

Where an object is

b)

Motion tracking

c)

Object recognition

d)

Balance

40.

Which motor unit type is most fatigue resistant?

a)

Fast fatigable

b)

Intermediate

c)

Slow

d)

Hybrid

41.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement and pupillary reflex?

a)

CN II

b)

CN III

c)

CN V

d)

CN VII

42.

Damage to the dorsal root ganglion would most likely impair:

a)

Motor output

b)

Endocrine control

c)

Sensory input

d)

Language processing

43.

Which structure is primarily involved in maintaining balance and posture?

a)

Basal ganglia

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Hippocampus

44.

What is the role of the inferior colliculus in the auditory pathway?

a)

Sound localization

b)

Tonotopy encoding

c)

Cochlear amplification

d)

Vestibular integration

45.

The visual pathway includes which relay station in the thalamus?

a)

MGN

b)

LGN

c)

VPL

d)

VPM

46.

Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?

a)

GABA

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Glutamate

47.

Which technique allows real-time observation of calcium dynamics in neurons?

a)

EEG

b)

fMRI

c)

GCaMP imaging

d)

PET scan

48.

What part of the brain is activated during fear conditioning?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Cerebellum

49.

Which cranial nerve carries auditory information to the brain?

a)

Vestibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII)

b)

Olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I)

c)

Optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II)

d)

Trigeminal nerve (Cranial Nerve V)

50.

Which cells in the retina first generate action potentials?

a)

Photoreceptors

b)

Bipolar cells

c)

Horizontal cells

d)

Ganglion cells

51.

The function of central pattern generators (CPGs) is to:

a)

Control voluntary movements

b)

Generate rhythmic motor patterns

c)

Encode pain signals

d)

Process visual input

52.

Which tract decussates at the medullary pyramids?

a)

Dorsal column

b)

Spinothalamic

c)

Corticospinal

d)

Rubrospinal

53.

Which glial cell responds to injury and acts as the brain’s immune defense?

a)

Schwann cell

b)

Oligodendrocyte

c)

Microglia

d)

Astrocyte

54.

A lesion to the left optic tract would cause:

a)

Blindness in the left eye

b)

Right visual field loss

c)

Tunnel vision

d)

Central scotoma

55.

Which ion is most responsible for depolarization during synaptic transmission?

a)

K+

b)

Ca2+

c)

Cl-

d)

Na+

56.

Which protein initiates vesicle docking during neurotransmitter release?

a)

Connexin

b)

Troponin

c)

SNARE

d)

Ankyrin

57.

Which visual stream is responsible for processing motion and spatial location?

a)

Lateral stream

b)

Ventral stream

c)

Dorsal stream

d)

Anterior stream

58.

The somatotopic map in the primary somatosensory cortex is called:

a)

Cortical ring

b)

Retinotopy

c)

Motor arc

d)

Homunculus

59.

Which neuromodulator is primarily linked to reward and reinforcement?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinephrine

60.

Which of the following describes saltatory conduction?

a)

Ion flow through dendrites

b)

AP propagation in unmyelinated axons

c)

AP jumping between nodes of Ranvier

d)

Continuous propagation of synaptic potential

61.

In synaptic facilitation, a second EPSP is stronger due to:

a)

Ion channel desensitization

b)

Depleted vesicle pool

c)

Residual calcium

d)

Lower membrane resistance

62.

Which type of receptor is both G-protein coupled and inhibitory?

a)

AMPA

b)

GABA-A

c)

GABA-B

d)

NMDA

63.

What is the typical resting membrane potential of a mammalian neuron?

a)

+30 mV

b)

0 mV

c)

-65 mV

d)

-120 mV

64.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump?

a)

It transports 3 K⁺ in and 2 Na⁺ out

b)

It uses ATP to restore equilibrium after action potentials

c)

It transports 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in

d)

It moves ions down their concentration gradients