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QUIZ FMS 1 WEEK 1-4

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with an accumulation of misfolded proteins?

a)

Graves’ disease

b)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

c)

Kuru

d)

Alzheimer Disease

e)

Parkinson

2.

The following pedigree is characteristic for a disease which is inherited in ________ manner.

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

X-linked dominant

c)

Autosomal dominant

d)

Mitochondrial

e)

Autosomal Recessive

3.

Interaction between an enhancer sequence and an activator in the regulation of gene expression is an example of:

a)

DNA-DNA interaction

b)

RNA-protein interaction

c)

Protein-protein interaction

d)

DNA-RNA interaction

e)

DNA-protein interaction

4.

Chaperone molecules bind to proteins targeted into organelles to …

a)

Modify the proteins

b)

Cleave signal sequences

c)

Direct the transport

d)

Prevent premature folding

e)

Destroy protein folding

5.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until …

a)

The 5’ caps are removed from the mRNA

b)

The two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter

c)

DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit

d)

Several transcription factors have bound to the promoter

e)

The DNA introns are removed from the template

6.

The following pedigree is an example of ______ inheritance.

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Mitochondrial

d)

X-linked dominant

e)

Autosomal recessive

7.

Carriers of balanced Robertsonian translocation may have offspring with __________.

a)

Normal chromosomes

b)

Balanced Robertsonian translocation

c)

Loss of a chromosome

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

8.

Misfolded proteins in the ER are transported to _____ covalently linked to _____ and degraded in the _____

a)

Cytosol, Poly-Ubiquitin, Proteasome

b)

Cytosol, Poly-Lysin, Proteasome

c)

Golgi apparatus, Poly-Lysin, Lysosome

d)

Cytosol, Poly-Ubiquitin, Autophagy

e)

Golgi apparatus, Poly-Ubiquitin, Lysosome

9.

Which of the following is/are true regarding a synonymous single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

a)

A change in a nucleotide in the DNA sequence results in coding for the same amino acid

b)

Will always result in a change in function of the protein

c)

Is a product of genetic variation in the non–coding region

d)

A change in a nucleotide in the DNA sequence results in coding of a different amino acid

e)

Is a product of genetic variation in the intron region

10.

Which one of the following statements describes essential amino acids?

a)

They are stored in adequate amounts so are not needed in the diet

b)

They are ingested but not used in protein synthesis

c)

They are less important in cells than non-essential amino acids

d)

They must be included in our diet because humans cannot synthesize them

e)

They can be synthesized from non-essential amino acids

11.

What is the function of signal peptidase?

a)

Release newly synthesized proteins from ribosomes

b)

Removing the signal sequence of a protein after reaching its correct location

c)

Helping newly synthesized proteins to be folded properly

d)

Helping old and unused proteins to be degraded

e)

Directing proteins into the nucleus

12.

Human genome project revealed that only approximately 23,000 genes have been mapped in humans. However, it is known that there are many more proteins human can produce than the genes code for. The process called ________ is thought to be one of the mechanisms allowing human cells to produce more proteins from only one single gene.

a)

Single mutation

b)

Genome editing

c)

Alternative splicing

d)

RNA silencing

e)

RNAi (RNA interference)

13.

Which of the following pairs of amino acids might contribute to protein conformation by forming electrostatic interactions?

a)

Lysine and arginine

b)

Glutamate and aspartate

c)

Phenylalanine and tyrosine

d)

Glycine and leucine

e)

Glutamate and lysine

14.

In bacteria, some of the functions of the organelles in eukaryotic cells are performed by ...

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleoli

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Vesicles

e)

The plasma membrane

15.

Meiotic error in human oogenesis (the process of producing the female gametes) may cause following conditions except:

a)

XYY

b)

Trisomy 18

c)

XXY

d)

Trisomy 13

e)

XXX

16.

Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis (translation) in the proper sequence.

a)

1,3,2,4,5

b)

2,4,5,1,3

c)

4,1,3,2,5

d)

5,4,3,2,1

e)

4,1,2,5,3

17.

This condition occurs when an organism is having an unequal number of chromosomes in adjacent cells or tissues.

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Diploidy

c)

Mixoploidy

d)

Aneuploidy

e)

Haploidy

18.

Which statement is true for the function of Peroxisome?

a)

The breakdown of very long fatty acids through beta oxidation

b)

Single membrane bound

c)

Synthesis of Catalase

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

19.

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

a)

A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus

b)

Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA

c)

snRNP and snRNA may function in RNA splicing

d)

RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes

e)

Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus

20.

Which of the following statements about Cell is false?

a)

Different cells use different genetic code

b)

All cells need energy to operate

c)

All cells synthesize proteins by using the ribosome

d)

All cells store information in genes in the form of DNA

e)

Proteins govern the activities, functions and structures in all cells

21.

21. B-thalassemia case common in SouthEast Asia is often due to a point mutation E26K in the B-globin gene. This mutation results in a B-globin protein that ______.

a)

Contains aspartate (aspartic acid) at position 26 instead of lysine

b)

Is only 26 amino acids long with lysine as the last amino acid

c)

Contains lysine at position 26 instead of aspartate (aspartic acid)

d)

Cannot be synthesized (no B-globin protein at all)

e)

Contains lysine at position 26 instead of glutamate (glutamic acid)

22.

A skin biopsy from an anorexic 16 year old girl showed cellular atrophy. During atrophy:

a)

Protein synthesis increases

b)

Cellular organelles swell

c)

Cell size increases

d)

The cell disappears

e)

Cell size decreases

23.

Plasma membrane’s function in prokaryotic cells includes the followings EXCEPT:

a)

ATP production

b)

DNA anchoring site

c)

Regulate molecules’ transport

d)

Permeability Barrier

e)

Site of translation

24.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Necrosis?

a)

No loss of membrane integrity

b)

No inflammatory response

c)

It affects groups of cells

d)

It results in the formation of vesicle

e)

Pre-lytic DNA fragmentation

25.

The following statements is true about Chimera except:

a)

Occurs only in female

b)

The result of double fertilization

c)

Blood chimera occurs in fraternal twins

d)

Blood chimera formed because of shared placenta

e)

From two genetically different sperms

26.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

a)

Complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

b)

Complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA

c)

The part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid

d)

Catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme

27.

This amino acid is

a)

Nonpolar and hydrophobic

b)

Polar and hydrophobic

c)

Polar and hydrophilic

d)

Aromatic

e)

Nonpolar and hydrophilic

28.

Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Valine

d)

Methionine

e)

Leucine

29.

E.coli cells grown on a 15N medium are transferred to a 16N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication), DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

a)

One low-density band

b)

One high-density and one intermediate-density band

c)

One intermediate-density band

d)

One high-density and one low-density band

e)

One low-density and one intermediate-density band

30.

Which statement best describes Endocytosis?

a)

Vesicle fused with Golgi membrane

b)

Export of products such as insulin

c)

Passive transport

d)

Mediated by Receptor

e)

Cargo release in high pH environment

31.

Protein deficiency disease is known as

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Kwashiorkor and marasmus

d)

Prion disease

e)

Parkinson

32.

The cytoskeleton includes at the following except:

a)

Tubulin

b)

Actin

c)

Lamin

d)

Vimentin

e)

Myosin

33.

Which of the following statements about membrane protein is not correct?

a)

Many integral membrane proteins are glycoproteins with sugar groups conjugated in their extracellular domains

b)

Many integral membrane proteins function as transporters, channels, and receptors

c)

Transmembrane domains of integral membrane proteins are rich in hydrophobic amino acids

d)

Integral membrane proteins are anchored to the lipid bilayer by ionic bonds

34.

At the following are structures that are part of the secretory pathway EXCEPT:

a)

Trans-Golgi network

b)

Transport vesicles

c)

Peroxisomes

d)

Cis Cisterna

e)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

35.

Daughter strands in replication are always made of one strand of old DNA and one newly synthesized complementary strand. This nature of DNA replication is referred as:

a)

Dispersive

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Conservative

d)

Discontinuous

e)

Antiparallel

36.

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around

a)

A thymine dimer

b)

Satellite DNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Histones

e)

Polymerase molecules

37.

Amino acids produced upon protein degradation constitute the amino acid pool in the cell, if not used for protein synthesis, what happens to the amino acids?

a)

-NH2 group will be released as urea in urine via the kidney

b)

The carbon skeleton of the amino acids can be used for fat synthesis

c)

The carbon skeleton of the amino acids can be used for produce energy

d)

Used for the synthesis of nitrogen-containing compounds like creatinine and serotonin

e)

All of these

38.

Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of a tertiary structure of a protein?

a)

Hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains

b)

Hydrophobic and van der Waals interactions

c)

Ionic bonds between oppositely charged amino acid side chains

d)

Covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone

e)

Disulfide bridges between cysteine residues

39.

After fertilization, the resulting zygote begins to divide by

a)

Synapsis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Autophagocytosis

e)

Binary fission

40.

Nuclear pore allows the movement of

a)

RNA

b)

Ion, protein and RNA

c)

Ion and protein

d)

Ion

e)

Protein

41.

The regions of a gene located at -10 and -35 with respect to the start of transcription are termed

a)

Enhancer sequences

b)

Start codons

c)

Terminator

d)

Origin of replication (ori)

e)

Promoters

42.

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Meiosis?

a)

Homologous pairs of chromosomes are pulled apart

b)

Meiosis results in haploid daughter cells

c)

Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells

d)

Meiosis results in four daughter cells

e)

Chromosomes do not exchange genetic material

43.

What protein condenses during apoptosis

a)

Dynein

b)

Clathrin

c)

Actin

d)

Chromatin

e)

Myosin

44.

Which of the following help(s) to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?

a)

Introns

b)

5’ cap and poly (A) tail

c)

TATA box

d)

Spliceosomes

e)

RNA polymerase

45.

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base pairing rules (Chargaff’s Rule)?

a)

A + T = G + T

b)

A = C

c)

G = T

d)

A = G

e)

A + G = C + T

46.

UV radiation can cause DNA damage in the form of thymine dimers formation. This DNA damage is usually repaired by the DNA repair mechanism of:

a)

NHEJ: Nucleotide Excision Repair, repair DNA damage because compounds,

b)

NER: environmental carcinogens & UV light exposure

c)

BER: Base Excision Repair, repair pathway for the processing of small base lesions,

d)

MMR derived from oxidation and alkylation damages

e)

HDR MMR: MisMatch Repair, corrects mismatches during DNA replication

47.

Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

a)

DNA -> proteins -> RNA

b)

DNA -> RNA -> proteins

c)

Proteins -> DNA -> RNA

d)

RNA -> proteins -> DNA

e)

RNA -> DNA -> proteins

48.

Y is for yellow color, and R is for the round shape of seeds. The color yellow is dominant over the color green, and the round shape is dominant over the wrinkled shape. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, what would be the ratio of round to wrinkled yellow seed?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:3:4

c)

3:1

d)

9:6

e)

1:2:1

49.

Replication of the genome occurs in the ____ of Cell Cycle.

a)

Telophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Interphase

e)

Metaphase

50.

What causes the decreased pH in the endosomes and lysosome?

a)

Receptor mediated Endocytosis

b)

Proton pumps in the membrane

c)

Autophagy

d)

Phagocytosis

e)

Vesicle fusion

51.

In a study of skin cell reproduction, it is noticed that genetic material is not being divided equally. A cell structure that could make mistake could be the:

a)

Centrioles

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Lysosome

d)

ER

e)

Nucleolus

52.

Virus has the advantage over non-virus agent to be used in gene therapy because:

a)

It is non-modifiable

b)

It targets specific cells

c)

It is non-infectious

d)

There is vaccine available

e)

It is made of RNA

53.

An abnormal chromosome with two identical arms is called

a)

Paracentric inversion

b)

Dicentric chromosome

c)

Reciprocal translocation

d)

Isochromosome

54.

Lysosomal Storage Diseases are the result of a defective

a)

Lysosomal Enzyme

b)

Ion transporter

c)

Glycosylation in Golgi Apparatus

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

55.

If Ovalbumin’s egg white protein is denatured in a hard-boiled egg, then which of the following is feast affected?

a)

The primary structure of ovalbumin

b)

The tertiary structure of ovalbumin

c)

The quaternary structure of ovalbumin

d)

All stages of protein structures remain intact

e)

The secondary structure of ovalbumin

56.

When two or more genes are responsible for a single phenotype, this is called:

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Polydactyly

d)

Epistasis

e)

Polyploidy

57.

At the center of the cell cycle control system is Cdk, a protein that:

a)

is only active during mitosis

b)

is phosphorylated to become active

c)

manufactures growth factors

d)

is endocytosed from plasma membrane

e)

that binds to different cyclins

58.

Peptides resulting from protein digestion by pepsin in the stomach are digested further by pancreatic and small intestinal proteases. Which of the following proteases cuts peptide bonds on the -COOH side of the aromatic amino acid (Tyr, Trp and Phe)?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Carboxypeptidase

c)

Trypsin

d)

Chymotrypsin

e)

Elastase

59.

Nondisjunction in Meiosis I may result in a daughter cell with _______.

a)

Extra chromosome

b)

Loss of a chromosome

c)

Normal number of chromosomes

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

60.

Gastrin is _______.

a)

First protease to digest protein in the stomach

b)

A serine protease that cuts peptide bonds on the -COOH side of Arginine & Lysine

c)

A hormone that controls hydrochloric acid production and pepsin release

d)

A serine protease that cuts peptide bonds on the -COOH side of Tyr, Trp, and Phe

e)

A serine protease that cuts peptide bonds on the -COOH side of Valine & Threonine

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