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HST MidTerm Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Any cut, injury, or needle stick—no matter how minor—must be reported immediately.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

If chemicals splash on the skin and cause burns, use large amounts of water to wash the skin and dilute the chemicals for 15–30 minutes.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Gloves can be washed between patients if the gloves have not been contaminated.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Only a limited number of microorganisms are considered to be ideal for bioterrorism.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The major cause of fires is improper rubbish disposal.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A victim of heat exhaustion has an internal body temperature of 105°F (40.6°C) or higher.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Standard precautions must be followed at all times by all health care providers.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Immediate medical care during the first 3 hours after a cerebrovascular accident can help prevent brain damage.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Before activating a fire alarm, all doors and windows should be closed and elevators should be used to quickly remove people from the area of danger.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

A dislocation is treated the same way a fracture is treated.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

A hantavirus affecting primates and rodents that mutated and spread to humans is ____.

a)

West Nile virus

b)

SARS virus

c)

Marburg

d)

monkeypox

12.

In the chain of infection, an instrument contaminated with blood acts as a ____.

a)

portal of entry

b)

reservoir

c)

causative agent

d)

portal of exit

13.

Which of these statements about the use of mercury is not correct?

a)

It can create a toxic vapor when released.

b)

Mercury poisoning attacks the central nervous system in humans.

c)

Only authorized individuals should clean up a mercury spill.

d)

All of these statements are correct.

14.

Standard precautions were developed by ____.

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b)

Federal Drug Administration

c)

Department of Health and Human Services

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

15.

An N-95, P-100, or more powerful filtering mask such as a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask must be worn for ____.

a)

droplet precautions

b)

airborne precautions

c)

contact precautions

d)

standard precautions

16.

Ergonomics includes all of the following except ____.

a)

training in required muscle movements

b)

determining which repetitive movements will be most effective

c)

correct placement of furniture and equipment

17.

How much of the border around the outside of a sterile field is considered contaminated?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

18.

Safety glasses ____.

a)

should be worn at all times

b)

are required for some procedures

c)

usually are not needed in health care facilities

d)

must be worn while using electrical equipment

19.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of insulin shock?

a)

hunger pangs

b)

pale and moist skin

c)

sweet or fruity odor to the breath

d)

restlessness or anxiety

20.

If you find a piece of damaged or malfunctioning equipment, ____.

a)

read the instructions for the equipment

b)

repair the equipment before using it

c)

report it immediately

d)

put the equipment away in storage

21.

The virus that causes swine flu is ____.

a)

Ebola

b)

HVC

c)

H1N1

d)

SARS

22.

To get close to an object, ____.

a)

twist to the correct angle

b)

bend from the waist and knees

c)

bend from the hips and knees

d)

reach out for the object

23.

Which of the following is NOT an OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?

a)

Provide personal protective equipment

b)

Enforce rules of no eating, drinking, smoking, or applying cosmetics in any area that can be contaminated

c)

Provide training on all regulations to all employees at no cost during working hours

d)

Provide hepatitis C vaccine free of charge to anyone with occupational exposure

24.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for a convulsion?

a)

Put a blunt object between the victim’s teeth to keep the victim from biting his or her tongue.

b)

Remove dangerous objects from the area.

c)

Avoid using force to restrain or stop the muscle movements.

d)

Put a pillow or cushion under the victim’s head.

25.

Cocci that occur in clusters or groups are ____.

a)

diplococci

b)

streptococci

c)

staphylococci

d)

micrococci

26.

Parasitic microorganisms carried by fleas, lice, ticks, and mites are ____.

a)

viruses

b)

protozoa

c)

fungi

d)

rickettsiae

27.

If you are alone, call first for EMS before starting CPR for ____.

a)

an unconscious adult or child who has reached puberty

b)

any victim of submersion or near drowning

c)

any victim with cardiac arrest caused by a drug overdose or trauma

d)

an unconscious infant or child from 1 year of age to puberty

28.

What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one person is performing CPR on an adult victim?

a)

5:2

b)

15:2

c)

30:1

d)

30:2

29.

In the chain of infection, a pathogen leaving the body through sexual secretions is an example of ___

a)

reservoir

b)

portal of exit

c)

causative agent

d)

mode of transmission

30.

The type of burn characterized by a red or mottled color, a wet appearance, and a blister or vesicle is a ____.

a)

superficial burn

b)

partial-thickness burn

c)

full-thickness burn

d)

third-degree burn

31.

Solutions used in health care facilities ____.

a)

can be dangerous, so avoid eye and skin contact

b)

can be mixed together in most cases

c)

do not always need a label

d)

all of the above

32.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of shock?

a)

rapid, shallow respirations

b)

diaphoresis

c)

rapid, weak pulse

d)

elevated blood pressure

33.

Tetanus is most likely to occur with a/an ____.

a)

laceration

b)

incision

c)

amputation

d)

puncture

34.

If a particle gets in your eye, ____.

a)

rub the eye to loosen the particle

b)

report it immediately

c)

flush the eye with large amounts of water

d)

use a sterile gauze pad to remove the particle

35.

The best transfer method to use when placing a sterile bowl on a sterile field is the ____.

a)

mitten technique

b)

drop technique

c)

forceps technique

d)

grasp technique

36.

If you are caring for a critical adult accident victim and determine that the victim is unconscious, ___

a)

call EMS immediately

b)

continue providing care until someone comes

c)

continue providing care but constantly yell for help

d)

continue providing care for approximately 1 minute, stop and call EMS, and return immediately to the victim

37.

If an adult victim is unconscious and has an obstructed airway, ___

a)

give abdominal thrusts

b)

give chest thrusts

c)

start CPR

d)

all of the above

38.

Which of these statements about the use of mercury is not correct?

a)

It can create a toxic vapor when released.

b)

Mercury poisoning attacks the central nervous system in humans.

c)

Only authorized individuals should clean up a mercury spill.

d)

All of these statements are correct.

39.

Which of the following is NOT a first aid treatment for minor wounds without severe bleeding?

a)

put on gloves to avoid contamination

b)

wash the wound with soap and water

c)

use sterile gauze to blot the wound dry

d)

apply an antibiotic ointment

40.

The first step of first aid is to ___

a)

recognize that an emergency exists

b)

call emergency medical services

c)

check the victim for breathing

d)

check the victim for bleeding

41.

The type of shock that occurs when poisons or toxins in the blood cause vasodilation and the blood pressure drops is ___.

a)

neurogenic

b)

septic

c)

anaphylactic

d)

metabili

42.

The type of shock that occurs when vomiting or diarrhea causes dehydration and a disruption in the normal acid-base balance of the body is ____.

a)

metabolic

b)

cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic

d)

septic

43.

In case of fire in a health care facility, the most important thing to do is ____.

a)

know the fire emergency plan

b)

activate the fire alarm

c)

remove everyone from the building

d)

remain calm

44.

A common bandage wrap for a sprained ankle is the ____.

a)

cravat wrap

b)

spiral wrap

c)

recurrent wrap

d)

figure-eight wrap

45.

You read the labels on solution bottles at least how many times?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

46.

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?

a)

common cold

b)

tuberculosis

c)

hepatitis

d)

measles

47.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the “ideal” microorganism for bioterrorism?

a)

spread through the air

b)

easily transmitted from person to person

c)

expensive and difficult to produce

d)

causes death or severe disability

48.

If a victim has contact with a poisonous plant, ____.

a)

call the poison control center or doctor

b)

apply calamine or Caladryl lotion immediately

c)

wash the area with soap and water

d)

use sterile gauze to wipe the secretions

49.

The three things needed in order for a fire to start are ____.

a)

fuel, heat, oxygen

b)

fuel, oxygen, flammable material

c)

flammable material, oxygen, chemical reaction

d)

spark, oxygen, matches

50.

How many inches apart should the feet be to maintain a broad base of support?

a)

2 to 4

b)

4 to 6

c)

6 to 8

d)

8 to 10

51.

A wound caused by a sharp object such as a knife, scissors, or a razor is a/an ____.

a)

abrasion

b)

incision

c)

laceration

d)

puncture

52.

If a solution such as acetic acid spills on a counter, ____.

a)

wipe it up immediately

b)

dilute it with water

c)

absorb it into a sponge

d)

report it immediately

53.

To treat clear or blood-tinged fluid draining from the ear after a skull or brain injury, ____.

a)

position the victim on the uninjured side

b)

apply a pressure bandage to stop the flow

c)

allow the fluid to flow from the ear

d)

pack the ear with gauze to absorb the flow

54.

Threadlike projections that are similar to tails and allow an organism to move are ____.

a)

spores

b)

spirochetes

c)

flagella

d)

cilia

55.

The process that destroys pathogenic organisms but is not always effective against spores and viruses is ____.

a)

chemical disinfection

b)

antisepsis

c)

ultrasonic cleaning

d)

sterilization

56.

What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when two people are performing CPR on an adult victim?

a)

5:1

b)

5:2

c)

30:1

d)

30:2

57.

The best method for sterilizing instruments that may corrode is ____.

a)

dry heat

b)

steam

c)

chemical

d)

ultrasonic cleaning

58.

How many days do items usually remain sterile after being autoclaved?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

60

d)

90

59.

If a poison has been swallowed, the first step of care is to ____.

a)

dilute the poison with milk or water

b)

encourage the victim to vomit

c)

call a poison control center

d)

position the victim on his or her side

60.

Using sterile technique includes all of the following except ____.

a)

opening a sterile tray before donning sterile gloves

b)

keeping the hands in front of the body and below the waist

c)

reaching in from the side

d)

touching only sterile items when sterile gloves are in place