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Study Guide 2 - Part 1 Quiz

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of anemia is caused by bone marrow failure?

a)

Aplastic

b)

Hemolytic

c)

Hemorrhagic

d)

Pernicious

e)

Sickle cell

2.

The primary function of platelets is

a)

phagocytosis.

b)

plasma formation.

c)

cellular immunity.

d)

antigen formation.

e)

blood clotting.

3.

The CF thromb/o means

a)

throbbing.

b)

blood clot.

c)

chest.

d)

thymus.

e)

spleen.

4.

An extreme, life-threatening response to an allergen is called

a)

induration.

b)

anaphylaxis.

c)

asthma.

d)

sensitization.

e)

autoimmunity.

5.

The CF thym/o means

a)

strange, foreign.

b)

heat.

c)

blood clot.

d)

gland.

e)

thymus gland.

6.

Which classification of drugs dissolves blood clots by destroying their fibrin strands?

a)

Antimicrobials

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Thrombolytics

d)

Antivirals

e)

Fat-soluble vitamins

7.

The suffix -penia means

a)

A. attraction for.

b)

B. decrease, deficiency.

c)

C. abnormal condition.

d)

D. standing still.

e)

E. carrying, transmission.

8.

Which abbreviation denotes the presence of a blood clot, especially of the deep veins of the legs?

a)

PTT

b)

DVT

c)

CBC

d)

APTT

e)

RBC

9.

Incision of a vein is called

a)

venostasis.

b)

phlebotomy.

c)

phleborrhaphy.

d)

phlebectopia.

e)

venostomy.

10.

Inflammation of the spleen is called

a)

splenitis.

b)

splenorrhea.

c)

splenoptosis.

d)

splenocele.

e)

splenorrhagia.

11.

What is a viral disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Von Willebrand disease

c)

Thrombocythemia

d)

Anemia

e)

Infectious mononucleosis

12.

Destruction of old RBCs is a function of the

a)

bone marrow.

b)

spleen.

c)

tonsils.

d)

thymus.

e)

lymph nodes.

13.

Which type of test helps identify leukemia?

a)

Bone marrow aspiration

b)

Sentinel node excision

c)

Antinuclear antibody

d)

Blood culture

e)

Blood typing

14.

Phagocytosis is a function of which cell?

a)

Macrocyte

b)

Erythrocyte

c)

Macrophage

d)

Thrombocyte

e)

Platelet

15.

The process in which a transplant recipient’s immune system attacks the transplanted organ or tissue is called

a)

disseminated intravascular coagulation

b)

viscerogenic

c)

graft-versus-host disease

d)

graft rejection

e)

graft elimination

16.

Which abbreviation denotes a common blood screening test?

a)

PCP

b)

CBC

c)

CLL

d)

APTT

e)

AML

17.

The combining form (CF) phag/o means

a)

phase

b)

strange

c)

swallowing, eating

d)

different

e)

same

18.

The suffix -stasis means

a)

remain

b)

blood condition

c)

protein

d)

standing still

e)

decrease

19.

Which laboratory test diagnoses infectious mononucleosis?

a)

Hematocrit

b)

Complete blood count

c)

Monospot

d)

Schilling

e)

Von Willebrand

20.

What are the smallest formed elements found in blood?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Erythrocytes

e)

Platelets

21.

The “master gland” that regulates other glands is called the

a)

thyroid

b)

pineal

c)

pituitary

d)

parathyroid

e)

adrenal

22.

In adults, hypersecretion by the thyroid gland causes

a)

cretinism.

b)

myxedema.

c)

osteoporosis.

d)

Graves disease.

e)

tetany.

23.

Which disorder is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by enlargement of the facial and jaw bones?

a)

Thyrotoxicosis

b)

Goiter

c)

Graves disease

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Acromegaly

24.

An elevated potassium level in the blood is called

a)

hypervolemia.

b)

hyperkalemia.

c)

hyponatremia.

d)

hypercalcemia.

e)

hypothyroidism.

25.

Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of the

a)

parathyroid glands.

b)

adrenal glands.

c)

pancreas.

d)

pineal gland.

e)

thyroid gland.

26.

Which hormone initiates labor during childbirth?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Somatropin

c)

Glucocorticoid

d)

Estrogen

e)

Oxytocin

27.

Which abbreviation is associated with an electrolyte?

a)

DI

b)

K

c)

LT

d)

T₃

e)

T₄

28.

The combining form (CF) adren/o means

a)

parathyroid glands.

b)

adrenal glands.

c)

adenoids.

d)

thyroid gland.

e)

thymus gland.

29.

The suffix -emia means

a)

A. blood condition.

b)

B. thirst.

c)

C. lymph.

d)

D. insulin.

e)

E. urinary condition.

30.

Which hormone is responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Cortisol

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Insulin

e)

Androgen

31.

Which screening test determines how quickly glucose is cleared from the blood at regular intervals after a fast of at least 8 hours?

a)

Insulin tolerance test

b)

Thyroid function test

c)

Total calcium test

d)

Glucose tolerance test

e)

Fasting blood glucose

32.

The pituitary hormone that promotes lactation following childbirth is called

a)

oxytocin

b)

luteinizing hormone

c)

somatotropin

d)

prolactin

e)

follicle-stimulating hormone

33.

Which imaging procedure obtains images of the thyroid gland after oral or intravenous administration of radioactive iodine to identify thyroid pathologies, such as tumors?

a)

Thyroid function test

b)

Protein-bound iodine test

c)

Thyroid scan

d)

Radioactive iodine uptake

34.

An endocrinologist would treat which disease?

a)

Cerebral palsy

b)

Stroke

c)

Diabetes

d)

Meningitis

e)

Myeloma

35.

An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called

a)

hypergonadism.

b)

euthyroid.

c)

thyromegaly.

d)

tetany.

e)

hypophyseal enlargement.

36.

Which classification of drugs helps treat Addison disease?

a)

Antidiuretics

b)

Antithyroids

c)

Thyroid supplements

d)

Corticosteroids

37.

The CF glyc/o means

a)

milk.

b)

protein.

c)

granule.

d)

glue.

e)

sugar; sweetness.

38.

In which condition are sodium blood levels lower than normal?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

e)

Hypothyroidism

39.

Which procedure involves excision of the pituitary gland through the sphenoid sinus without disturbing brain tissue?

a)

Pituitarotomy

b)

Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

c)

Encephalectomy

40.

The prefix poly- means

a)

change.

b)

many, much.

c)

excessive.

d)

above normal.

e)

gray.

41.

Which movement describes the flexing of the foot or toes downward toward the sole?

a)

Abduction

b)

Dorsiflexion

c)

Adduction

d)

Pronation

e)

Plantar flexion

42.

A large, rounded process on a bone is called a(n)

a)

sulcus.

b)

fossa.

c)

tuberosity

43.

Which bones form the three main divisions of the pelvis?

a)

Coccyx, ilium, and femur

b)

Ischium, symphysis, and radius

c)

Pubis, sacrum, and tarsal

d)

Ilium, ischium, and pubis

e)

Coccyx, ischium, and scapula

44.

Which suffix means to break or surgical fracture?

a)

-blast

b)

-desis

c)

-clasia

d)

-centesis

e)

-cleisis

45.

Stiffening and immobility of a joint is called

a)

arthrolysis.

b)

arthroclasia.

c)

arthritis

46.

What is the combining form (CF) for heel bone?

a)

calcane/o

b)

acromi/o

c)

tars/o

d)

calc/o

e)

carp/o

47.

What is the surgical procedure to relieve symptoms of a ruptured disc?

a)

Open reduction

b)

Sequestrectomy

c)

Synovectomy

d)

Laminectomy

e)

Bursectomy

48.

Any body part attached to a main structure is called a(n)

a)

ligament.

b)

appendage.

c)

tendon.

d)

epiphysis.

e)

fontanel.

49.

The CF orth/o means

a)

orthopedics.

b)

straight.

c)

child.

d)

foot.

e)

bent.

50.

Muscular dystrophy is characterized by gradual

a)

infections.

b)

inflammation.

c)

tumors

d)

weakening of muscle tissue

e)

degeneration of joints

51.

Infection of the bone and bone marrow is called

a)

osteomyelitis.

b)

muscular dystrophy.

c)

spondylitis.

d)

arthritis.

e)

dysarthritis.

52.

Which classification of drugs helps treat acute musculoskeletal conditions?

a)

DEXA

b)

LS

c)

NSAIDs

d)

MRI

e)

CTS

53.

The two main divisions of the skeleton are the axial and the

a)

articular.

b)

vertebral.

c)

peripheral

d)

cephalic

e)

appendicular

54.

At which site does hematopoiesis occur?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Cartilage

d)

Liver

e)

Periosteum

55.

Which branch of medicine diagnoses, treats, and manages musculoskeletal disorders?

a)

Pediatrics

b)

Rheumatology

c)

Neurology

d)

Chiropractic

e)

Orthopedics

56.

What is the plural form of pelvis?

a)

pelvic

b)

pelvicular

c)

pelvex

d)

pelvaces

e)

pelves

57.

Which classification of drugs helps relieve muscle spasms and stiffness?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Gold salts

c)

Salicylates

d)

Muscle relaxants

e)

Antibiotics

58.

In which type of fracture does the bone injure another organ, such as a broken rib piercing a lung?

a)

Closed

b)

Impacted

c)

Complicated

d)

Incomplete

e)

Compound

59.

The CF arthr/o means

a)

orthopedics

b)

straight

c)

child

d)

foot

e)

bent

60.

A procedure in which high-frequency sound waves produce images of the bladder to determine bladder volume and identify incomplete bladder emptying is called

a)

cystoscopy.

b)

cystography.

c)

electromyography.

d)

bladder ultrasonography.

e)

cystourethrography.

61.

Which medications relieve “leaking” of urine resulting from an overactive bladder?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antispasmodics

d)

Estrogens

e)

Potassium supplements

62.

In the process of urine formation, filtration takes place in the

a)

renal corpuscle

b)

bladder

c)

renal pelvis

d)

loop of henle

e)

collecting tubule

63.

The suffix -uria means

a)

urea.

b)

ureter.

c)

structure.

d)

urine.

e)

stricture.

64.

One of the most common causes of end-stage renal disease is

a)

hepatitis.

b)

cystitis.

c)

diabetes.

d)

fistula.

e)

cystocele.

65.

Which abbreviation refers to chronic renal failure?

a)

ESRD

b)

DRE

c)

KUB

d)

US