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Knee Practice Test

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the lateral collateral ligament.

2.

Identify the anterior cruciate ligament.

3.

Identify the patellar tendon.

4.

Identify the Gerdy's Tubercle.

5.

Identify the apex of the patella.

6.

Identify the femoral condyle.

7.

Identify the posterior cruciate ligament.

8.

Identify the head of the fibula.

9.

Identify the femoral patellar tendon.

10.

Identify the medial collateral ligament.

11.

What injury is where ligaments have been completely torn in the knee?

a)

Strain III

b)

Sprain II

c)

Strain II

d)

Sprain III

12.

The tibia is a weight bering bone.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is the difference between a dislocation and subluxation?

4 lines
14.

RICE is the general treatment for most sprains and strains.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What is the medical name for the knee joint?

(a)  

16.

Which part of the knee is often injured in a lateral blow to the knee?

a)

MCL

b)

ACL

c)

PCL

d)

LCL

17.

What is the function of the tibial plateau?

a)

Articulates with femoral condyles

b)

Inserts the IllioTibial Band

c)

Attachment site for the patellar tendon

d)

Supports the fibula.

18.

What is the medical name for the knee?

a)

A) Tibiofemoral

b)

B) Patellafemoral

c)

C) Patellatibiofemoral

d)

D) Knee

19.

What are the names of the two menisci?

a)

A) Anterior and Posterior

b)

B) Medial and Lateral

c)

C) Superior and Inferior

d)

D) Proximal and Distal

20.

What is the main function of the menisci?

a)

Shock absorbtion

b)

Increase stability

c)

cover the bone

d)

Destabilize the joint

21.

Which of the following muscles is not located in the quadriceps group?

a)

A) Vastus lateralis

b)

B) Vastus medialis

c)

C) Vastus intermedius

d)

D) Biceps femoris

22.

Which muscle is located on the lateral side of the thigh?

a)

Vastus lateralis

b)

Vastus medialis

c)

Rectus femoris

d)

Vastus intermedius

23.

What movement is associated with the biceps femoris?

a)

abduction

b)

Knee flexion

c)

Knee extension

d)

adduction

24.

Which muscle is located lateral to the semimembranosus and semitendinosus in the diagram?

a)

Gracilis

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

Adductor magnus

d)

Gluteus maximus

25.

Which muscle is responsible for knee flexion and hip adduction?

a)

Sartorius

b)

Gracilis

c)

Popliteus

d)

Gastrocnemius

26.

Which muscle(s) are accessory muscles responsible for knee flexion?

a)

Plantaris

b)

Popliteus

c)

Peroneus longus

d)

Flexor hallucis

27.

What is the condition called when a person is bow-legged?

a)

Genu valgum

b)

Genu varum

c)

Genu recurvatum

d)

Genu flexum

28.

What does the knee do when an ACL rupture occurs?

a)

Gives out

b)

Becomes stronger

c)

Heals immediately

d)

Stays the same

29.
Which two ligaments are on the sides of the knee? 
a)
ACL and PCL 
b)
MCL and LCL 
c)
MCL and ACL 
d)
ACL and LCL 
30.

Which muscle group is primarily responsible for knee extension?

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Calf muscles

d)

Gluteal muscles

31.

Which of the following knee stress tests is used to assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)?

a)

McMurray's Test

b)

Lachman's Test

c)

Apley's Compression Test

d)

Valgus Stress Test

32.

During a range of motion assessment, what is the normal range of knee flexion in degrees?

a)

0-60 degrees

b)

0-90 degrees

c)

0-135 degrees

d)

0-180 degrees

33.

Which manual muscle testing technique is used to evaluate the strength of the quadriceps muscle?

a)

Resisted knee flexion

b)

Resisted knee extension

c)

Resisted hip abduction

d)

Resisted ankle dorsiflexion

34.

A patient presents with pain and swelling in the knee after a twisting injury. Which knee injury is most likely?

a)

Patellar Tendinitis

b)

Meniscus Tear

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Bursitis

35.

Explain why the Lachman's Test is preferred over the Anterior Drawer Test for assessing ACL injuries.

a)

The Lachman's Test is less painful for the patient.

b)

The Lachman's Test is more sensitive and specific for ACL injuries.

c)

The Anterior Drawer Test requires more equipment.

d)

The Anterior Drawer Test is only used for chronic conditions.

36.

A patient has limited knee extension. Which muscle group is most likely contributing to this limitation?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Adductors

37.

Describe the strategic approach to performing a manual muscle test for the hamstrings.

a)

The patient is seated, and the examiner applies resistance to knee extension.

b)

The patient is prone, and the examiner applies resistance to knee flexion.

c)

The patient is standing, and the examiner applies resistance to hip flexion.

d)

The patient is supine, and the examiner applies resistance to ankle dorsiflexion.

38.

What is the primary reason for using the McMurray's Test in a clinical setting?

a)

To assess the stability of the patella

b)

To evaluate the integrity of the meniscus

c)

To measure the range of motion of the knee

d)

To test the strength of the quadriceps

39.

Which of the following is a common symptom of patellar tendinitis?

a)

Swelling behind the knee

b)

Pain at the front of the knee, especially during jumping

c)

Locking of the knee joint

d)

Numbness in the lower leg

40.

How does the valgus stress test help in diagnosing knee injuries?

a)

It assesses the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament.

b)

It evaluates the strength of the quadriceps muscle.

c)

It measures the range of motion of the knee joint.

d)

It assesses the integrity of the medial collateral ligament.

41.

What is the strategic importance of assessing the range of motion in a patient with a suspected knee injury?

a)

To determine the patient's pain threshold

b)

To identify the specific ligament involved

c)

To evaluate the functional limitations and guide treatment planning

d)

To measure the patient's endurance

42.

Which of the following is a strategic reason for performing manual muscle testing on a patient with a knee injury?

a)

To confirm the presence of a fracture

b)

To assess muscle strength and identify potential muscle imbalances

c)

To measure the patient's height

d)

To evaluate the patient's cardiovascular fitness

43.

What is the primary cause of knee bursitis?

a)

Overuse or repetitive motion

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Viral infection

d)

Calcium deficiency

44.

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with knee bursitis?

a)

Sharp pain in the knee joint

b)

Swelling and warmth around the knee

c)

Locking of the knee

d)

Numbness in the foot

45.

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease primarily associated with?

a)

Overuse of the knee joint in adolescents

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Viral infection

d)

Calcium deficiency

46.

Which symptom is most commonly observed in patients with Osgood-Schlatter disease?

a)

Swelling and tenderness at the tibial tuberosity

b)

Locking of the knee joint

c)

Numbness in the lower leg

d)

Sharp pain in the hip joint

47.

What is the typical age range for individuals affected by Osgood-Schlatter disease?

a)

5-10 years

b)

10-15 years

c)

15-20 years

d)

20-25 years

48.

What is Sinding-Larsen-Johansson’s Disease primarily associated with?

a)

Overuse of the knee joint in adolescents

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Viral infection

d)

Calcium deficiency

49.

Which symptom is most commonly observed in patients with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson’s Disease?

a)

Swelling and tenderness at the inferior pole of the patella

b)

Locking of the knee joint

c)

Numbness in the lower leg

d)

Sharp pain in the hip joint

50.

What is the typical age range for individuals affected by Sinding-Larsen-Johansson’s Disease?

a)

5-10 years

b)

10-15 years

c)

15-20 years

d)

20-25 years

51.

What is the primary symptom of chondromalacia patella?

a)

Sharp pain in the hip

b)

Dull, aching pain in the front of the knee

c)

Swelling in the ankle

d)

Numbness in the toes

52.

Which activity is most likely to exacerbate symptoms of patellar tendonitis?

a)

Swimming

b)

Running or jumping

c)

Walking on flat surfaces

d)

Standing still

53.

What is the primary cause of jumper's knee?

a)

Overuse of the patellar tendon

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Calcium deficiency

d)

Viral infection

54.

Which of the following is a common symptom of jumper's knee?

a)

Swelling behind the knee

b)

Pain at the lower part of the kneecap, especially during jumping

c)

Locking of the knee joint

d)

Numbness in the lower leg

55.

What is the primary purpose of the Apley's Compression Test?

a)

To assess the stability of the patella

b)

To evaluate the integrity of the meniscus

c)

To measure the range of motion of the knee

d)

To test the strength of the quadriceps

56.

Which special test is used to assess the integrity of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?

a)

McMurray's Test

b)

Posterior Drawer Test

c)

Lachman's Test

d)

Valgus Stress Test

57.

Which tests the meniscus?

a)

McMurray

b)

Varus stress test

c)

Valgus stress test

d)

Anterior drawer

58.

What special test tests the LCL?

a)
Thessaly test
b)
McMurray test
c)
Valgus stress test
d)
Varus stress test
59.

What special test tests the MCL?

a)
Lachman test
b)
Thessaly test
c)
Varus stress test
d)
Valgus stress test
60.

Which is used to test the PCL?

a)

Posterior drawer

b)

McMurray

c)

Thessaly

d)

Anterior drawer