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Nursing Assessment and Patient Interviewing

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse completes the following steps during her shift of care. Which are the steps of nursing assessment? (Select all that apply.)

a)

The review of patient data in the medical record

b)

Confirming a patient’s self-report of abdominal pain by inspecting the abdomen

c)

Reporting results of an ongoing assessment to a nurse working the next scheduled shift

d)

Analyzing a set of signs revealing lower leg weakness and unsteady gait with a pattern of mobility alteration

e)

Conducting an interview of a family caregiver

2.

Match the assessment activity on the top with the type of assessment on the bottom


1. Assessment conducted at beginning of a nurse’s shift

2. Review of a patient’s chief complaint

3. Completion of admitting history at time of patient admission to a hospital

4. Completion of the Long Term Care Minimum Data Set during an elderly patient admission to a nursing home


A. Problem focused

B. Comprehensive

(a)  

3.

A nurse initiates a brief interview with a patient who has come to the medical clinic because of self-reported hoarseness, sore throat, and chest congestion. The nurse observes that the patient has a slumped posture and is using intercostal muscles to breathe. The nurse auscultates the patient’s lungs and hears crackles in the left lower lobe. The patient’s respiratory rate is 20 per minute compared with an average of 16 per minute during previous clinic visits. The patient tells the nurse, “It is hard for me to get a breath.” Which of the following data sets are examples of subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Heart rate of 20 per minute and chest congestion

b)

Lung sounds revealing crackles and use of intercostal muscles to breathe

c)

Patient statement, “It’s hard for me to get a breath”

d)

Slumped posture and previous respiratory rate of 16 per minute

e)

Patient report of sore throat and hoarseness

4.

The nurse asks a patient the following series of questions: “Describe for me how much you exercise each day.” “How do you tolerate the exercise?” “Is the amount of exercise you get each day the same, less, or more than what you did a year ago?” This series of questions would likely occur during which phase of a patient-centered interview?

a)

Orientation

b)

Working phase

c)

Data interpretation

d)

Termination

5.

Place the following steps of the assessment process in the correct order.

1. Compare data with another source to determine data accuracy.

2. As a pattern forms, probe and frame further questions.

3. Interview a patient, observe behavior, and gather physical assessment findings.

4. Cluster cues that relate together, make inferences, and identify emerging patterns.

5. Differentiate important data from the total data you collect.

(a)  

6.

Which of the following approaches are recommended when gathering assessment data from an 82-year-old male patient entering a primary care clinic for the first time? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Recognize normal changes associated with aging

b)

Avoid direct eye contact

c)

Lean forward and smile as you pose questions

d)

Allow for pauses as patient tells his story

e)

Use the list of questions from the clinic assessment form to complete all data

7.

Fill in the blank: First-level priorities in nursing assessment refer to __________ issues (e.g., airway, breathing, circulation).

a)

Life-threatening

b)

Psychosocial

c)

Chronic

d)

Nutritional

8.

Spirituality is best defined as:

a)

An organized system of beliefs, practices, and rituals shared by a group

b)

A broad concept focusing on a person's search for meaning, purpose, and connection with a higher power or the universe

c)

A dietary practice

d)

A family role

9.

Religion is:

a)

A broad concept focusing on a person's search for meaning

b)

An organized system of beliefs, practices, and rituals shared by a group

c)

A communication pattern

d)

A type of nonverbal behavior

10.

Fill in the blank: Cultural Assessment is a systematic examination of the cultural values, beliefs, and practices of an individual or group to provide __________ care.

a)

culturally competent

b)

universal

c)

technical

d)

financial

11.

Open-ended questions require more than a 'yes' or 'no' answer to encourage patients to share detailed information.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Fill in the blank: Nonverbal behaviors such as posture, gestures, and eye contact significantly impact __________.

a)

communication

b)

nutrition

c)

transportation

d)

mathematics

13.

Interviewing the older adult requires considerations such as:

a)

Pacing the interview

b)

Allowing for more time

c)

Being aware of potential sensory deficits or cognitive changes

d)

All of the above

14.

What is the purpose of collecting a health history?

a)

To collect subjective data about a person's health state to form a comprehensive picture of their past and present health.

b)

To diagnose diseases without any further tests.

c)

To prescribe medication immediately.

d)

To perform surgical procedures.

15.

Subjective data is what the person says about themselves, while objective data is what you observe through measurement, inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following is an example of objective data?

a)

I have a headache.

b)

Blood pressure reading

c)

I feel tired.

d)

My stomach hurts.

17.

Functional assessment measures a person's self-care ability in areas of general physical health or absence of illness.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

When a patient reports an allergy, what is crucial to ask?

a)

What kind of reaction occurs (e.g., rash, difficulty breathing).

b)

How long the allergy has existed.

c)

If the allergy is common in their family.

d)

Whether they have traveled recently.

19.

You are legally required to report suspected cases of abuse and neglect (child, elder, or vulnerable adult) and domestic violence in some jurisdictions.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What is the diaphragm of a stethoscope used for?

a)

Used for high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds.

b)

Used for low-pitched sounds like heart murmurs.

c)

Used to measure blood pressure directly.

d)

Used to amplify electrical signals from the heart.

21.

The bell of a stethoscope is used for which type of sounds?

a)

High-pitched sounds

b)

Low-pitched sounds

c)

All sounds

d)

No sounds

22.

A Doppler device is used to detect peripheral pulses or blood pressure when they are difficult to palpate or auscultate.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The general survey is a study of the whole person, covering their general health state and any obvious physical characteristics.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Radial pulse is assessed for which of the following?

a)

Rate (beats per minute)

b)

Rhythm (regular or irregular)

c)

Force (strength)

d)

Temperature

25.

What are Korotkoff sounds?

a)

The sounds heard during blood pressure measurement. A two-step BP procedure helps avoid an auscultatory gap.

b)

A type of heart murmur heard during systole.

c)

The sounds produced by the lungs during inspiration.

d)

A type of nerve impulse recorded in EEG.

26.

Factors affecting blood pressure can include age, stress, race, medications, and the cuff size used for measurement.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What are the expected breath sounds you should know the location for?

a)

Bronchial, bronchovesicular, and vesicular sounds.

b)

Tracheal, alveolar, and pleural sounds.

c)

Laryngeal, diaphragmatic, and pericardial sounds.

d)

Cardiac, gastric, and intestinal sounds.

28.

Which of the following are considered adventitious breath sounds?

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezes

c)

Rhonchi

d)

All of the above

29.

How is chest expansion assessed?

a)

By placing hands on the posterior chest wall and observing for symmetric movement as the patient breathes.

b)

By measuring the circumference of the chest with a tape measure during inspiration only.

c)

By asking the patient to cough and observing for chest movement.

d)

By palpating the anterior chest for tenderness only.

30.

Light palpation is used to assess for which of the following?

a)

Surface characteristics and tenderness

b)

Underlying organs and masses

c)

Fluid in the abdomen

d)

Cognitive impairment

31.

Deep palpation is used to assess underlying organs and masses.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is the purpose of pain assessment in the abdomen?

a)

To assess the location, quality, and severity of abdominal pain.

b)

To determine the patient's blood pressure.

c)

To evaluate lung function.

d)

To check for vision problems.

33.

What does the ABCDEF skin assessment screen for?

a)

Suspicious lesions (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Elevation/Evolution, Funny looking)

b)

Nutritional deficiencies (Anemia, B12, Calcium, Vitamin D, Electrolytes, Folate)

c)

Common skin infections (Bacterial, Fungal, Candida, Dermatophytes, Eczema, Folliculitis)

d)

Allergic reactions (Angioedema, Blisters, Contact dermatitis, Erythema, Flushing, Hives)

34.

How should you perform a lymph node assessment?

a)

Use a gentle, circular motion with the finger pads to palpate lymph nodes, comparing sides for symmetry.

b)

Use firm, deep pressure with your knuckles to palpate lymph nodes quickly.

c)

Tap the lymph nodes lightly with your fingertips to check for tenderness.

d)

Only inspect the lymph nodes visually without touching them.

35.

What should you assess during a pupil assessment?

a)

Size, shape, and reaction to light and accommodation.

b)

Color, temperature, and moisture.

c)

Movement, strength, and coordination.

d)

Hearing, speech, and balance.

36.

The extraocular muscle (EOM) assessment is used to assess for parallel tracking of the eyes using which test?

a)

The diagnostic positions test (six cardinal positions of gaze)

b)

The Snellen chart test

c)

The cover-uncover test

d)

The pupillary light reflex test

37.

What is the Snellen chart used to measure?

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Hearing ability

d)

Lung capacity

38.

Which age-related change is described as a decreased ability to accommodate for near vision?

a)

Presbyopia

b)

Cataract

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Macular degeneration

39.

A clouding of the lens is known as:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Astigmatism

40.

For an adult, how should you straighten the S-shaped curve of the ear canal during an ear canal assessment?

a)

Pull the pinna up and back.

b)

Pull the pinna down and back.

c)

Push the tragus inward.

d)

Pull the earlobe up and forward.

41.

What is presbycusis?

a)

Age-related hearing loss, particularly of high-frequency sounds.

b)

A condition causing loss of vision in old age.

c)

A degenerative joint disease common in elderly.

d)

A type of memory loss associated with aging.

42.

What is a common age-related change in the ear involving earwax?

a)

Increased cerumen (earwax) buildup.

b)

Decreased cerumen (earwax) production.

c)

Complete absence of cerumen (earwax).

d)

Change in cerumen (earwax) color to blue.

43.

How do you assess nasal patency?

a)

By having the person sniff inward through one nostril at a time.

b)

By asking the person to open their mouth wide.

c)

By checking the color of the lips.

d)

By tapping lightly on the bridge of the nose.

44.

Where is the Point of Maximal Impulse (PMI) typically located?

a)

At the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line.

b)

At the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border.

c)

At the 4th intercostal space, left sternal border.

d)

At the 6th intercostal space, midaxillary line.

45.

What is the difference between a thrill and a murmur?

a)

A thrill is a palpable vibration; a murmur is an auscultated blowing/swooshing sound.

b)

A thrill is an audible sound; a murmur is a visible pulsation.

c)

A thrill is a type of heart valve; a murmur is a type of blood vessel.

d)

A thrill is a type of arrhythmia; a murmur is a type of chest pain.

46.

Which tool is used to assess bruits?

a)

The bell of the stethoscope.

b)

A reflex hammer.

c)

A tuning fork.

d)

An otoscope.

47.

What does Jugular Venous Distention (JVD) indicate?

a)

Right-sided heart failure.

b)

Left-sided heart failure.

c)

Pulmonary embolism.

d)

Hypertension.

48.

How is pitting edema assessed?

a)

On a 4-point scale based on the depth of the pit and how long it remains.

b)

By measuring the circumference of the limb only.

c)

By checking for color changes in the skin.

d)

By asking the patient about their pain level.

49.

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial insufficiency?

a)

Brownish skin discoloration and edema

b)

Pale, cool skin and intermittent claudication

c)

Shallow ulcers with irregular borders

d)

None of the above

50.

Age-related changes in the hair and nails include (select all that apply)

a)

oily scalp.

b)

scaly scalp.

c)

thinner nails.

d)

thicker, brittle nails.

e)

longitudinal nail ridging.

51.

During the physical examination of a patient’s skin, the nurse would

a)

use a flashlight in a poorly lit room.

b)

note cool, moist skin as a normal finding.

c)

pinch up a fold of skin to assess for turgor.

d)

perform a lesion-specific examination first and then a general inspection.

52.

What are the three components of Health Assessment

a)

Nutrition, Exercise, Medication

b)

Interview, History, & Subjective assessment; Objective/Physical Assessment; Health and Promotion

c)

Diagnosis, Treatment, Follow-up

d)

Prevention, Intervention, Evaluation

53.

What are the two types of assessments in the nursing process?

a)

Subjective and Objective

b)

Preliminary and Secondary

c)

Internal and External

d)

Quantitative and Qualitative

54.

What is the purpose of the diagnosis step in the nursing process?

a)

To actively carry out the plan

b)

To identify the nursing problem

c)

To evaluate the outcomes

d)

To set the goals

55.

What are the components of an Emergency/Urgent assessment according to the ABCDE principle?

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Delivery, Evaluation

b)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

c)

Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Examination

d)

Airway, Balance, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

56.

What does a Comprehensive Assessment include?

a)

Health History and Mental Assessment

b)

Health History and Physical Assessment

c)

Health History and Psychological Assessment

d)

Health History and Performance Assessment

57.

What is the focus of a Focused Assessment?

a)

On the patient's medical history

b)

On the patient's family history

c)

On the complaint/problem presented by the patient

d)

On the patient's previous treatments

58.

What is the purpose of the Intro part of an interview according to the learning material?

a)

To end the interview

b)

To collect data

c)

To establish trust and develop a rapport

d)

To summarize the information

59.

Which part of the interview is described as the longest?

a)

Intro

b)

Data Collection

c)

Closing/Summary

d)

Recap

60.

What is emphasized during the Data Collection phase of an interview?

a)

Greeting and body language

b)

Active listening and collection of data for assessment

c)

Summarizing the information

d)

Establishing trust

61.

What does the Closing/Summary part of an interview involve?

a)

Greeting the interviewee

b)

The longest part of the interview

c)

Developing a rapport

d)

Summarizing information and appreciating cooperation

62.

What information is typically included in the Demographic Data section of a Health History?

a)

Medical or surgical history

b)

Self care, mobility, & home environment

c)

Name, address, insurance, race, emergency contact, etc.

d)

Food, medications, or environmental allergies

63.

What does the Past Medical History section of a Health History document?

a)

Food, medications, or environmental allergies

b)

Self care, mobility, & home environment

c)

Medical or surgical history

d)

Name, address, insurance, race, emergency contact, etc.

64.

What is included in the Family History section of a Health History?

a)

A narrative description of events leading to illness/problem

b)

Patterns of mental or physical medical problems

c)

A brief description of symptoms or problem

d)

Questions about ALL body systems

65.

What type of information is gathered in the Functional Health History section?

a)

Medical or surgical history

b)

Self care, mobility, & home environment

c)

Food, medications, or environmental allergies

d)

Name, address, insurance, race, emergency contact, etc.

66.

What does the Review of Systems section in a Health History involve?

a)

A narrative description of events leading to illness/problem

b)

Patterns of mental or physical medical problems

c)

Questions about ALL body systems

d)

Self care, mobility, & home environment

67.

What type of information is considered subjective in an assessment?

a)

Information that can be measured

b)

Narrative information reported by the client

c)

Part of a physical examination

d)

Answers that do not prompt further questions

68.

Objective information in an assessment is characterized by being:

a)

Based on the provider's personal opinion

b)

Factual and measurable

c)

A narrative report from the client

d)

Likely to prompt more questions

69.

A charge nurse is reviewing the steps of the nursing process with a group of nurses. Which of the following data should the charge nurse identify as objective data? (select all that apply)

a)

Respiratory rate is 22/minute with even, unlabored respirations

b)

The client's partner state, "They said they hurt after walking about 10 minutes."

c)

The client's pain rating is 3 on a scale of 0 to 10.

d)

The client's skin is pink, warm, and dry.

e)

The assistive personnel reports that the client walked with a limp.

70.

What is a finding you might hear by percussing during a physical examination?

a)

Swelling

b)

Movable

c)

Dullness

d)

Texture