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Patient Care 3310 Final Review

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which acute reactions to contrast media usually require no medical treatment?

a)

Urticaria

b)

Convulsions

c)

Bronchospasm

d)

Laryngeal edema

2.

What class of drug is diphenhydramine (Benedryl)?

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Diuretic

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Anticholinergic

3.

Which statement expresses the correct relationship between lumen diameter and gauge number for IV's?

a)

As the diameter decreases, the gauge number increases.

b)

As the diameter increases, the gauge number increases.

c)

As the diameter decreases, the gauge number decreases.

d)

As the diameter increases, the gauge number stays the same.

4.

Which TWO upper extremity veins are most commonly used in a venipuncture procedure? 

a)

Radial

b)

Cephalic

c)

Median cubital

d)

Superficial dorsal

5.

What common emergency drug may be required for a contrast medium reaction?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Narcan

c)

Glumetza

d)

Metformin

6.

A severe life-threatening response to a drug is called what?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Palliative

c)

Idiosyncratic

d)

Pharmacognosy

7.

The following are areas to avoid when performing venipuncture: (select all that apply)


a)

bruising

b)

skin diseases or rashes

c)

same side as a mastectomy


d)

same side as a PICC line


e)

pulsating site


8.

You should always check the venipuncture site with a bolus flush prior to the injection of any medication or contrast agent.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Leaking of IV fluid (saline) into the tissue caused by dislodgement or over-sized catheter.

a)

Infiltration

b)

Extravasation

c)

Hematoma

d)

Phlebitis

10.

Which of the following models does the patient and medical professional base their decisions on shared goals and a balance of values through open communication?

a)

Engineering Model

b)

Priestly/Pateranal Model

c)

Collegial Model

d)

Contractual Model

11.

When a physician abides by a patients decision to be treated at a facility closer to home due to the long distance they would have to drive daily, the physician is considering which of the following?

a)

autonomy

b)

beneficence

c)

nonmaleficence

d)

justice

12.

When the medical professional and physician work with the patient as in a business relationship such as with informed consents, this model is considered:

a)

Engineering model

b)

Priestly/Paternal model

c)

Collegial model

d)

Contractual model

13.

The term veracity refers to:

a)

telling the truth

b)

preventing evil and harm

c)

doing no harm but also doing good

d)

protecting the patient from radiation

14.

Which of the following best defines fidelity?

a)

Duty to tell the truth

b)

Meeting the basic needs of the patient

c)

Strict observance of promises or duties; loyalty and faithfulness to others

d)

Being a competent professional

15.

Using moral rules as your complete guide to determine appropriate professional behavior:

a)

assumes everyone has the same moral values as you do, which is generally true

b)

is a reliable strategy to avoid ethical dilemmas

c)

is too restrictive of no value in decision making

d)

has its weaknesses because others may not have the same moral value system as you

16.

Which of the following could be a source for ethical attitudes:

  1. 1. Science

  2. 2. Religion

  3. 3. Experience

  4. 4. Culture

a)

1 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1, 2, and 4 only

d)

2, 3, and 4 only

e)

1, 2, 3, and 4

17.

This establishes norms for professional conduct and allows for self-regulation within professional agencies.

a)

Code of ethics

b)

Individual morals

c)

Hospital policies

d)

Professional etiquette

18.

It is important for the professional imaging technologist to thoroughly understand his or her responsibilities with regard to health information confidentiality. Particularly important considerations include:

  1. 1. a testimonial statement must be signed, indicating your awareness and responsibility in maintaining the privacy of patient records.

  2. 2. all examination results are released to patients by physicians only.

  3. 3. all health care personnel have the same responsibilities for maintaining confidentiality, including students.

a)

1 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

3 only

e)

1, 2, and 3

19.

Before a diagnostic study can be initiated:

  1. 1. a formal, documented examination request is entered into the institution’s information system.

  2. 2. the requesting physician must be identified on the request.

  3. 3. reasons for the examination must be on the request.

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3

20.

A typical health information management department:

a)

charges patients and doctors for its services and is a major revenue center for a hospital

b)

is responsible for the maintenance, retrieval, and storage of health information

c)

is needed only in hospitals

d)

provides health records to physicians only

21.

With regard to HIPAA regulations:

  1. 1. patients cannot access their medical information without their physician’s consent and attendance.

  2. 2. patients can access the health information of other patients who have had a similar medical experience during their stay.

  3. 3. copying and faxing medical information is strictly forbidden.

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3

e)

None of the above are true

22.

As a professional imaging team member, it is important to remember that:

a)

patient health records are considered legal documents

b)

incorrect coding of patient data has little effect on the day-to-day operations of a health care provider

c)

only the radiologist will be asked to provide legal testimony regarding a patient’s examination in which you participated

d)

HIPAA rules are voluntary and followed only by outpatient imaging centers

23.

A key function performed by a patient’s health information record is to:

a)

make sure all the patient's requests were met during the stay

b)

document the patient’s chief complaint to see if it was treated

c)

communicate to the patient’s physician all care rendered by all persons

d)

ensure the patient is discharged in a timely fashion

24.

All of the following would be characteristics of a patient health record EXCEPT:

a)

it is a single record on a single patient only.

b)

it may be maintained in paper or electronic media (or both).

c)

it is required for hospitals and emergency department visits only.

d)

it promotes communication among providers and continuity of care.

25.

Entering health information into a patient’s medical record (charting) is completed by:

a)

any department personnel who provide care to a patient.

b)

physicians only.

c)

nurses only.

d)

health information managers only.

26.

Medical records (not radiation record) must be retained at least:  

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

7 years

27.

A sentinel event includes:

  1. 1. Death

  2. 2. Non-severe physical injury

  3. 3. Severe physical injury

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3

28.

Who owns a medical record?

a)

The organization that created the record.

b)

The person the medical record is about.

c)

The state that the record was created in.

d)

There is no owner.

29.

The term used for a universal listing of medical codes for diagnostic and therapeutic procedures used for physician reimbursement of outpatient encounters:

a)

CPT

b)

APC

c)

DRG

d)

PPS

30.

All of the following are appropriate behaviors when recording information in an Electronic Medical Record EXCEPT:

a)

Log-in and Log-out with each entry.

b)

Record information for a fellow co-worker with their permission.

c)

Use correct spelling and standard abbreviations.

d)

Record information as it occurs.

31.

Identify HIPAA:

a)

Health Information Portability and Accountability Act

b)

Health Insurance Portability and Assurance Act

c)

Health Information Portability and Assurance Act

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

32.

As a patient is being assisted from the wheelchair to the imaging table, the patient trips on the footrest of the wheelchair, falls, and suffers a laceration to her eyebrow when her head hits the table. Which of the following lawsuits/legal action might result from this situation?

a)

Assault

b)

Battery

c)

Criminal mischief

d)

Negligence

33.

A charge of battery may result if a patient is:

a)

Threatened

b)

Touched without permission

c)

Allowed to fall

d)

Encouraged to stay in the hospital

34.

Which term is defined as "a legal or civil wrong, other than breach of contract, for which the court will provide a remedy in the form of an action for damages?"

a)

lawsuit

b)

tort

c)

criminal intent

d)

criminal act

35.

In a case in which the legal theory of res ipsa loquitur is being raised, the evidence presented must show all of the following elements except:

a)

The injury would not occurred except for negligence

b)

The patient contributed to his or her injury

c)

The defendant was in complete control

d)

The patient did not contribute to his or her injury in any way

36.

When a staff radiographer/sonographer/therapist commits an error as the result of following the orders of a staff physician, the physician may be held responsible according to the:

a)

Doctrine of respondeat superior

b)

Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

c)

The laws of false imprisonment

d)

The ASRT Code of Ethics

37.

If a therapist/sonographer/technologist threatens a patient during the course of a procedure and has an apparent immediate ability to perform the threatened act, which of the following legal theories may be applied?


a)

Assault

b)

Battery

c)

Negligence

d)

False imprisonment

38.

In regard to professional ethics, all of the following may be considered intentional misconduct except:

a)

Assault

b)

False imprisonment

c)

Invasion of privacy

d)

Negligence

39.

Which of the following means "the thing speaks for itself"?

a)

A bene placito

b)

Respondeat superior

c)

Res ipsa loquitur

d)

Mea culpa

40.

Restraining a patient during a procedure, without his consent, might result in a(n) ______ tort claim of ________.

a)

intentional; negligence

b)

intentional; false imprisonment

c)

unintentional; battery

d)

quasi-intentional; assault

41.

What does acronym PHI stand for?

a)

Personal Health Information

b)

Private Health Identity

c)

Protected Health information

d)

Personal Health Idenity

42.

It is okay to post patient x-rays or images on social media with patient identifiers removed.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Standard of Care is:

  1. 1. The degree of skill (proficiency), knowledge, and care ordinarily possessed and employed by members in good standing within the profession.

  2. 2. Judged against reasonable and prudent actions under similar circumstances.

  3. 3. Outlined by the profession.

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

1, 2, and 3

44.

Which of the following is often used in emergency situations to treat life-threatening injuries?

a)

Simple consent

b)

Implied consent

c)

Informed consent

d)

DNR order

45.

When obtaining informed consent, the procedure must be explained in the appropriate and precise medical terms so that the physician and other members of the health care team understand to what consent is being given.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

One of the ways to reduce legal liability when obtaining informed consent for an imaging procedure is to:

a)

Document informed consent on the appropriate form and have the patient's signature witnessed by a third party.

b)

Make several copies of the signed consent form.

c)

Have the patient sign a release of liability form.

d)

Never witness an informed consent.

47.

Which of the following is not a legal right of a patient in an imaging or radiation oncology department?

 

a)

To know the technologist’s name

b)

To refuse the radiographic examination

c)

To be informed of the possible risks

d)

To ask for and receive extra studies

48.

A process by which patients can agree to be treated or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the healthcare professional about the examination is called __ consent.

a)

implied

b)

informed

c)

simple

d)

inadequate

49.

The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant (healthcare provider). It implies that the patient was injured through no fault of his or her own while in the complete control of another. An example of this is a:

a)

patient marking the wrong body part for surgery while still awake.

b)

patient “ripping” her bandages off after surgery because they are painful.

c)

patient’s skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed.

d)

patient saying something very crude during surgery in a state of anesthesia.

50.

In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiographer, sonographer, or radiation therapist will be judged with regard to his or her compliance with the:

a)

actions of other imaging professionals working in the same department.

b)

orders of a physician.

c)

practice standards for medical imaging and radiation therapy.

d)

standards of care of medicine.

51.

It is the duty of any healthcare provider, including medical imaging personnel, to:

a)

safeguard patient rights and autonomy.

b)

complete examinations at the request of physicians under any circumstance.

c)

persuade patients to undergo medical examinations against their wishes.

d)

restrain all patient for medical examinations.

52.

When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?

a)

Patient

b)

Radiographer, Sonographer, or Radiation Therapist

c)

Doctor

d)

Nurse involved in the case

53.

A healthcare provider who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, “I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease.” A member of the housekeeping staff hears the healthcare provider and asks who the AIDS patient is so he can pass the information along to his coworkers for safety reasons. The healthcare provider responds by giving the patient’s name and room number. After the incident, housekeeping personnel refuse to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeeper’s church, where the patient is also a church member. After learning of the patient’s condition, the church asks the patient not to return to church. What type of complaint might be brought against the healthcare provider?

a)

Negligence

b)

Defamation

c)

Assault

d)

False imprisonment

54.

If bodily harm were to occur to a patient as a result of reckless conduct by the health care provider, this would be deemed:

a)

battery

b)

assault

c)

defamation

d)

slander

55.

Consent sets forth in general terms: 

  1. 1. What the procedure is expected to accomplish.

  2. 2. Reasonably known risks.

  3. 3. Name(s) of the physician(s) performing the procedure (except in emergency situations).

  4. 4. Nature & purpose of procedure(s).

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

2 ad 4 only

c)

2, 3, and 4 only

d)

1, 2, 3, and 4

56.

The class of medications that causes a reversible loss of consciousness, producing loss of ability to perceive pain and/or other sensation is:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

Anesthetics

d)

Antihistamines

57.

Which of the following are considered a form of parenteral drug administration? Select all that apply.

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Rectal

c)

Intravenous

d)

Oral

e)

Intramuscular

58.

In relation to drug nomenclature, this is generally derived from the chemical name, but typically shorter in length. Also known as the nonproprietary name.

a)

Generic name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Brand name

d)

Surname

59.

These can be obtained legally without a prescription.
A. over-the-counter drugs

B. controlled substances

C. dietary supplements 

a)

A and C only

b)

A only

c)

B and C only

d)

A and B only

e)

A, B, and C

60.

Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is its:

a)

contraindication

b)

risk to benefit factor

c)

tolerance

d)

solubility

61.

All of the following describe pharmacokinetics EXCEPT:

a)

excretion

b)

metabolism

c)

absorption

d)

route

62.

You just administered a contrast medium and your patient is having difficulty breathing with worsening hypoxia and has urticaria - what should you do first?

a)

ask the patient if they have any allergies

b)

begin chest compressions

c)

check the patient's chart

d)

immediately contact the supervising nurse or physician

63.

The "5" rights of medication (contrast) administration include all EXCEPT:

a)

Patient

b)

Drug

c)

Room number

d)

Route