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Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery - review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Adriana was born just a few minutes ago and has been diagnosed with cheiloschisis. How was the diagnosis made?

a)

By physical examination at birth

b)

By genetic testing before birth

c)

By blood test after birth

d)

By ultrasound during pregnancy

2.

Which layer is responsible for providing strength and elasticity to the skin?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Reticular layer of the dermis

c)

Subcutaneous layer

d)

Stratum corneum

3.

Refer to the diagram of the structure of the skin. The process of keratinization begins in which layer?

a)

Stratum corneum

b)

Stratum granulosum

c)

Stratum lucidum

d)

Stratum basale

4.

The stratum lucidum is present only in which areas of the body?

(a)  

5.

What is the main function of the stratum corneum?

(a)  

6.

Refer to the diagram of the structure of the skin. The papillary layer of the dermis is responsible for which of the following?

a)

Providing collagen for strength

b)

Groundwork for fingerprints

c)

Producing sweat

d)

Storing fat

7.

Refer to the diagram of the structure of the skin. What is the function of the sebaceous gland?

(a)  

8.

Refer to the diagram of the structure of the skin. How long does it take for newly formed epithelial cells to reach the body surface and be shed?

(a)  

9.

What is the subcutaneous layer also known as?

(a)  

10.

Which of the following is NOT considered an accessory structure to the integumentary system?

a)

Hair

b)

Nails

c)

Sweat glands

d)

Bones

11.

What is the main function of sebum produced by sebaceous glands?

(a)  

12.

Which type of sweat gland is larger and located in the external genitalia and axillae?

(a)  

13.

How many carpal bones are present in each wrist?

(a)  

14.

Figure 19-2 shows the development of which part of the body?

(a)  

15.

Refer to the diagram of the bones of the hand. Which bone is labeled as the most distal bone in each finger?

a)

Proximal phalanx

b)

Middle phalanx

c)

Distal phalanx

d)

Metacarpal

16.

Refer to the diagram of the bones of the hand. The bone that articulates with the distal radius and forms part of the wrist is the (a)   .

17.

Refer to the diagram of the bones of the hand. The phalanx closest to the metacarpal is called the (a)   phalanx.

18.

Refer to the diagram of the bones of the hand. Which bone is NOT a carpal bone?

a)

Lunate

b)

Capitate

c)

Radius

d)

Trapezoid

19.

The thumb has how many phalanges?

(a)  

20.

The bone that is located on the lateral side of the forearm and articulates with the carpal bones is the (a)   .

21.

The joint between the metacarpal and phalanx is called the (a)   joint.

22.

Which nerve is responsible for feeling in the skin of the medial third of the hand and some of the flexor muscles of the hand and wrist?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Median nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Deep branch of ulnar nerve

23.

What is the main function of the tendon sheaths in the fingers and thumbs?

a)

To provide blood supply

b)

To protect the bones

c)

To hold the tendons in approximation to the bones they pass over

d)

To generate movement

24.

Fill in the blank: The (a)   artery divides to form the radial and ulnar arteries just distal to the elbow joint.

25.

The purpose of the synovium in the compartments of the hand is to:

a)

produce synovial fluid for lubrication

b)

attach muscles to bones

c)

transmit nerve signals

d)

store calcium for bone growth

26.

Which ligament covers the compartments on the dorsal side of the hand?

a)

Transverse carpal ligament

b)

Dorsal carpal ligament

c)

Annular ligament

d)

Palmar ligament

27.

Burns can be caused by several sources. Select two sources mentioned in the text.

a)

Heat and chemicals

b)

Water and wind

c)

Light and sound

d)

Friction and cold

28.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'A' (Anterior view) of the muscles of the forearm and hand. Which muscle is located on the lateral side of the forearm and is responsible for flexing the wrist?

a)

Flexor carpi radialis

b)

Extensor digitorum

c)

Dorsal interossei

d)

Extensor carpi ulnaris

29.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'B' (Dorsal view) of the muscles of the forearm and hand. Which muscle is responsible for extending the fingers?

a)

Flexor digitorum superficialis

b)

Extensor digitorum

c)

Lumbrical (1st)

d)

Palmaris longus

30.

In the diagram labeled 'C' (Posteromedial view), which muscle is indicated as being responsible for thumb movement and is located near the base of the thumb?

(a)  

31.

Which structure is indicated as running through the carpal tunnel along with the flexor tendons?

a)

Abductor pollicis longus

b)

Median nerve

c)

Extensor retinaculum

d)

Extensor pollicis brevis

32.

In the diagram labeled 'B' in Figure 19-6, which structure is labeled as number 4?

a)

Extensor retinaculum

b)

EPL

c)

APL

d)

EPB

33.

Fill in the blank: The first dorsal compartment, as shown in diagram 'C' of Figure 19-6, contains the ______ and ______.

(a)  

34.

Which of the following is NOT found in the carpal tunnel as shown in diagram 'A'?

a)

Flexor tendons

b)

Median nerve

c)

Carpal bones

d)

Extensor retinaculum

35.

Third-degree burns completely penetrate the full thickness of the skin and often affect the underlying structures.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Fill in the blank: Superficial second-degree burns generally heal within (a)   and do not leave a scar.

37.

Which term is used to refer to the charred or pearly white appearance of third-degree burns?

a)

Eschar

b)

Scar

c)

Graft

d)

Retinaculum

38.

What are fourth-degree burns referred to as?

(a)  

39.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the Abbreviated Burn Severity Index (ABSI)?

a)

A) Age of the patient

b)

B) Sex of the patient

c)

C) Blood pressure of the patient

d)

D) Depth of the burn

40.

Fill in the blank: The Lund-Browder method uses a chart with variables according to (a)   to estimate body surface area (BSA) affected by burns.

41.

Patients with severe burns will require immediate intensive therapy to sustain life.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which layer is located directly below the dermis?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous layer

d)

Hypodermis

43.

According to the diagram, what degree of burn is associated with damage only to the epidermis?

a)

First degree

b)

Second degree

c)

Third degree

d)

Fourth degree

44.

Fill in the blank: A burn that extends through the epidermis and dermis, affecting the subcutaneous layer, is classified as a (a)   degree burn.

45.

According to the rule of nines diagram, what percentage of the total body surface area does each leg represent in an adult?

a)

9%

b)

18%

c)

12%

d)

15%

46.

According to the rule of nines, the anterior trunk accounts for 18% of the total body surface area.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the total body surface area does the head and neck represent?

a)

9%

b)

18%

c)

1%

d)

27%

48.

Name the three main causative agents of acne

(a)  

49.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of aging skin as described in the text?

a)

A) Loss of skin elasticity

b)

B) Increased glandular production

c)

C) Slower healing

d)

D) Decreased collagen fibers

50.

What are the three types or bands of ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

(a)  

51.

Type B (UVB 290-320 nm) is associated with sunburn and skin cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is a cleft lip or palate?

(a)  

53.

What does the 'V' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

54.

What does the 'A' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

55.

What does the 'C' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

56.

What does the 'T' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

57.

What does the 'E' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

58.

What does the 'R' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

59.

What does the 'L' in the VACTERL acronym stand for in the context of birth defects?

(a)  

60.

According to the International Federation of Hand Societies, which of the following is NOT a classified congenital upper limb deformity?

a)

Failure of formation of parts

b)

Overgrowth (gigantism or hyperplasia)

c)

Loss of sensation in the hand

d)

Duplication of parts

61.

Fill in the blank: The failure of the radius and adjacent soft tissues to fully develop, resulting in a deranged hand, is known as (a)  

62.

Which environmental factor is mentioned as a possible cause of congenital hand deformities?

a)

Excessive exercise during pregnancy

b)

Maternal exposure to rubella

c)

High protein diet

d)

Lack of sleep

63.

Which type of radial dysplasia is characterized by the absence of the radius and the presence of only the fibrous anlage?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

64.

Syndactyly is best described as:

a)

Overgrowth of the digits

b)

Webbed or joined digits due to failure to separate

c)

Absence of the hand

d)

Duplication of the thumb