wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exam 3

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is collecting a midstream urine specimen. Which step is essential?

a)

Collect the first voided urine

b)

Avoid cleaning the perineal area

c)

Collect urine after starting the stream

d)

Store the sample at room temperature

2.

What term describes the presence of glucose in the urine?

a)

Proteinuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Glycosuria

d)

Ketonuria

3.

What is the minimum acceptable urine output per hour for an adult?

a)

10 mL

b)

20 mL

c)

30 mL

d)

50 mL

4.

Which type of incontinence is associated with sudden urgency?

a)

Stress

b)

Urge

5.

A client with a hip fracture cannot elevate their pelvis. Which elimination aid should the nurse provide?

a)

Regular bedpan

b)

Fracture pan

c)

Commode

d)

Urinal

6.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s lab work. Which finding best supports the presence of chronic protein malnutrition?

a)

Hemoglobin 13.4 g/dL

b)

Serum albumin 2.8 g/dL

c)

Transferrin 225 mg/dL

d)

Glucose 88 mg/dL

7.

Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing aspiration when assisting a client with dysphagia during meals?

a)

Encouraging slow chewing

b)

Positioning the client upright

c)

Thickening liquids

d)

Supervising during intake

8.

Which dietary instruction is most appropriate for a client on a full liquid diet?

a)

You can have creamed soups and pudding.

b)

You may include toast and yogurt.

c)

Clear fruit juices are your best option.

d)

All fruits and vegetables are encouraged.

9.

A vegetarian asks how to meet daily protein needs. Which response shows the best understanding of protein complementation?

a)

Drink soy milk at every meal.

b)

Combine beans with rice for complete protein.

c)

Eat plenty of green leafy vegetables.

d)

Add nuts to your breakfast.

10.

Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response when evaluating a client with a BMI of 17.5?

a)

This BMI may place you at risk for osteoporosis.

b)

You're slightly underweight; increase calories.

c)

This puts you within a healthy weight range.

d)

Consider tracking your diet to ensure proper balance.

11.

A nurse is caring for a client prescribed a mechanical soft diet. Which menu item best aligns with this dietary order?

a)

Baked chicken breast with roasted vegetables

b)

Cooked oatmeal with mashed bananas

c)

Fresh garden salad with vinaigrette

d)

Toast with scrambled eggs

12.

Which lab result should concern the nurse most in an older adult with signs of poor nutritional status?

a)

Triceps skinfold: 6 mm

b)

Hemoglobin: 13.2 g/dL

c)

Serum albumin: 2.9 g/dL

d)

Glucose: 96 mg/dL

13.

A client reports eating once daily and recent unintentional weight loss. What is the nurse’s best first step?

a)

Obtain a serum albumin level

b)

Calculate BMI

c)

Document food preferences

d)

Request a dietitian consult

14.

Which combination provides the best example of protein complementation for a vegan client?

a)

A. Eggs and cheese

b)

B. Brown rice and black beans

c)

C. Yogurt and granola

d)

D. Tofu and vegetable stir-fry

15.

A nurse is teaching a client with limited income about healthy food choices. Which statement best reflects a practical approach?

a)

Buy organic produce to reduce pesticide exposure.

b)

Purchase vitamin supplements from health stores.

c)

Combine dried beans and rice for complete protein.

d)

Eat more packaged meat substitutes.

16.

Which anthropometric measurement is most useful in monitoring muscle wasting in a long-term care client?

a)

BMI

b)

Midarm circumference

c)

Waist-to-hip ratio

d)

Height

17.

What instruction is most accurate when educating a client about reading nutrition labels?

a)

Check the cholesterol first.

b)

The %DV helps you compare nutrient values.

c)

Ignore calories; focus on vitamins.

d)

Use sodium content to guide sugar intake.

18.

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a malnourished client’s physical assessment?

a)

Healthy gums and moist skin

b)

Thick, shiny hair and alert cognition

c)

Dull eyes, dry skin, and poor turgor

d)

Normal reflexes and strong hand grip

19.

Which is the strongest rationale for including exercise in the care plan of a sedentary older adult?

a)

Prevents falls and fractures

b)

Promotes social interaction

c)

Increases appetite and nutrient absorption

d)

Reduces boredom in long-term care settings

20.

Which scenario most clearly supports a diagnosis of emaciation?

a)

Client with BMI of 20, appetite loss, and low protein intake

b)

Client with hollow facial features, visible ribs, and BMI of 16

c)

Client with mild weight loss and low triceps skinfold

d)

Client with normal labs but low fluid intake

21.

What is the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client on a clear liquid diet who is requesting orange juice?

a)

Yes, that is allowed.

b)

Orange juice is okay if diluted.

c)

Let me ask the physician.

d)

Orange juice is not clear and not permitted.

22.

Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching about soft diets?

a)

I can have well-cooked vegetables.

b)

I’ll avoid spicy and fried foods.

c)

I can eat raw celery with peanut butter.

d)

I’ll mash my potatoes before eating.

23.

Which strategy is most effective when feeding a client with advanced dementia?

a)

Serve a full tray with all food groups visible

b)

Feed quickly before the client becomes distracted

c)

Offer finger foods one at a time in a calm setting

d)

Use loud verbal cues and reminders

24.

What factor most contributes to nutritional deficits in older adults?

a)

Reduced kidney function

b)

Limited socialization during meals

c)

Frequent dental checkups

d)

Adequate access to supplements

25.

A client reports avoiding milk due to lactose intolerance. Which substitution best ensures calcium intake?

a)

Drink orange juice

b)

Eat green leafy vegetables

c)

Eat hard cheese and yogurt

d)

Drink flavored water

26.

A nurse is teaching a new staff member how to prevent injury while lifting patients. Which technique should the nurse emphasize first?

a)

Bend at the waist and keep the load close

b)

Keep knees straight and pivot with your back

c)

Widen your stance and lift with your legs

d)

Hold your breath while lifting to stabilize the core

27.

A client with limited mobility is repositioned every two hours. Which nursing goal does this intervention most directly support?

a)

Enhances venous return

b)

Prevents contractures

c)

Reduces skin breakdown

d)

Increases independence

28.

A nurse notices that a client's feet are plantar-flexed while in the supine position. What device is most appropriate?

a)

Pillow under knees

b)

Footboard at base of bed

c)

Bed cradle over feet

d)

Rolled towel behind calves

29.

A nurse is about to reposition a client. What should be done first?

a)

Elevate the bed to waist level

b)

Roll the client toward the nurse

c)

Place a drawsheet under the client

d)

Assess the client’s ability to assist

30.

A client lies flat in bed for extended periods. Which condition is most likely to result?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Foot drop

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Constipation

31.

A nurse evaluates a patient’s sitting posture. Which finding requires immediate correction?

a)

Hips at 90° with feet flat on floor

b)

Shoulders level and relaxed

c)

Buttocks unsupported by chair

d)

Knees slightly below hip level

32.

Which action is most effective in preventing musculoskeletal injury during a lateral client repositioning?

a)

Pulling the client with a drawsheet alone

b)

Using a friction-reducing roller sheet with two caregivers

c)

Dragging the client toward the edge of the bed

d)

Placing pillows under the arms before turning

33.

A nurse prepares to move a client up in bed. Which bed adjustment is most important before moving?

a)

Raising the head of the bed

b)

Raising the bed to elbow height

c)

Lowering the bed to the floor

d)

Locking the side rails up

34.

Which scenario indicates the best use of a trochanter roll?

a)

A client with incontinence

b)

A client with lower back pain

c)

A client recovering from hip surgery

d)

A client with foot drop

35.

A nurse is teaching a client about Fowler’s position. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

I’ll lie flat to increase lung expansion.

b)

Fowler’s position helps me breathe easier.

c)

My legs will be elevated above my chest.

d)

My feet will point downward to reduce edema.

36.

A nurse is preparing to reposition a dependent client using a drawsheet. What should the nurse do before beginning the move?

a)

Place pillows along the client’s side

b)

Apply lotion to the client’s back

c)

Ensure bed height is at waist level

d)

Pull the drawsheet toward the head of the bed

37.

Which finding would most concern the nurse when assessing the effects of immobility in a client?

a)

Decreased bowel sounds

b)

1+ edema in ankles

c)

Asymmetric calf circumference

d)

Pale skin at the sacrum

38.

A nurse is caring for a client using a low-air-loss bed. Which statement best explains its purpose?

a)

It evenly distributes pressure to prevent ulcers.

b)

It keeps the patient in a floating position.

c)

It reduces incontinence by wicking away moisture.

d)

It stabilizes the spine during movement.

39.

Which body system benefits most directly from using proper ergonomics during client transfers?

a)

A. Musculoskeletal

b)

B. Neurological

c)

C. Cardiovascular

d)

D. Integumentary

40.

Which position would the nurse place a client in to relieve sacral pressure?

a)

Prone

b)

Sims’

c)

Lateral oblique

d)

Supine

41.

A client requires frequent repositioning. Which tool is most appropriate to reduce friction?

a)

Transfer board

b)

Trapeze bar

c)

Roller sheet

d)

Trochanter roll

42.

Which action is most appropriate when transferring a partially weight-bearing client from bed to chair?

a)

Use a mechanical lift

b)

Apply a gait belt and pivot assist

c)

Request help from a second nurse

d)

Instruct client to push off bed rails

43.

Which nursing action best promotes spinal alignment in a client positioned laterally?

a)

Use two pillows under the head

b)

Flex the lower leg and extend the top leg

c)

Place a pillow between the knees

d)

Tuck the arms under the client’s body

44.

What is the primary goal of using a trapeze bar for a client in bed?

a)

To prevent foot drop

b)

To reduce shoulder dislocation

c)

To assist with repositioning and upper body strength

d)

To provide psychological stimulation

45.

A nurse places a hand roll in a client’s palm. What is the intended outcome?

a)

Reduce wrist extension

b)

Maintain hand alignment and prevent contractures

c)

Improve sensory stimulation

d)

Support circulation in the digits

46.

A nurse repositions a client and observes blanchable redness on the hip. What action is most appropriate?

a)

Document the finding and return in 2 hours

b)

Place a foam dressing over the area

c)

Offload pressure and reposition more frequently

d)

Apply a warm compress for circulation

47.

A nurse is transferring a 300-lb non-weight-bearing client from bed to chair. What is the safest strategy?

a)

Two-person assist and gait belt

b)

Use of transfer board and roller sheet

c)

Mechanical lift with two trained staff

d)

Slide sheet with high Fowler’s position

48.

Which client is best suited for the prone position?

a)

Post-abdominal surgery

b)

Spinal cord injury requiring airway clearance

c)

COPD patient on oxygen

d)

Client with nausea and vomiting

49.

Which positioning error most increases the client’s risk for pressure ulcer development?

a)

Using a pillow under the knees

b)

Placing the client flat in bed

c)

Elevating the head of bed to 90°

d)

Flexing the knees and hips slightly

50.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a positioning schedule. Which finding indicates positive outcome?

a)

No skin redness over bony prominences

b)

Slight non-blanchable redness over elbows

c)

Family reports client is sleeping more

d)

Moisture barrier cream applied twice daily

51.

Which observation should the nurse prioritize when evaluating a client's voiding pattern?

a)

Urine color and clarity

b)

Time of last void

c)

Urine output of 35 mL/hour

d)

Voiding every 6–8 hours

52.

Which urinary condition most warrants immediate intervention?

a)

Glycosuria in a diabetic

b)

Residual urine of 55 mL

c)

Anuria in the last 12 hours

d)

Frequency and urgency in an older adult

53.

The nurse provides instructions for a midstream urine specimen. Which client action indicates accurate understanding?

a)

I will urinate completely into the container.

b)

I'll use the first part of my urine stream.

c)

I will cleanse and then catch urine midway.

d)

I'll collect urine and refrigerate it until tomorrow.

54.

A client voids 300 mL but experiences urgency 10 minutes later. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Nocturia

d)

Urge incontinence

55.

Which characteristic most accurately defines polyuria?

a)

Urine output greater than 3,000 mL/day

b)

Voiding 5 times a day

c)

Frequent small voids with burning

d)

Nighttime urination twice per night

56.

Which nursing action best prevents urinary stasis in a bedridden client?

a)

Encouraging 2 liters of fluid intake

b)

Limiting voiding to 4 times/day

c)

Elevating the foot of the bed

d)

Using a fracture pan every 6 hours

57.

A client’s urinalysis reveals ketonuria. What is the nurse’s best clinical response?

a)

Encourage more rest

b)

Notify the provider of possible diabetes or starvation

c)

Increase the client’s sodium intake

d)

Reassess fluid intake

58.

What does a positive finding of protein in the urine most likely indicate?

a)

Urethral irritation

b)

Urinary tract infection

c)

Glomerular dysfunction

d)

Fluid overload

59.

Which client is most at risk for developing stress incontinence?

a)

70-year-old with Parkinson’s disease

b)

38-year-old who gave birth vaginally to 5 children

c)

50-year-old with prostate enlargement

d)

60-year-old with chronic urinary retention

60.

What is the most effective strategy for managing functional incontinence?

a)

Provide privacy

b)

Offer bedpan every 2 hours

c)

Use bladder retraining program

d)

Improve access to toileting