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Pediatric and Obstetric Nursing Quiz

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus)?

a)

A hole in the ventricular septum allowing blood to mix

b)

Oxygen-rich blood from the aorta flows back into the lungs, causing extra workload on the right side of the heart and lungs

c)

A condition where the ductus arteriosus closes too early in pregnancy

d)

A narrowing of the aortic valve

2.

Which of the following are signs & symptoms of increased pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Hypotension, Bradycardia, Jaundice

b)

Tachypnea, Poor Feeding, Tachycardia, Activity Intolerance, Developmental Delays

c)

Weight gain, Constipation, Increased appetite

d)

Dehydration, Hypothermia, Anemia

3.

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

a)

PDA

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot

c)

VSD

d)

Aortic Stenosis

4.

When should VSD & PDA close?

a)

Before birth

b)

Within a few hours or up to two weeks after birth

c)

By 1 year of age

d)

By adolescence

5.

What can VSD and PDA cause, and what treatment is used?

a)

Dehydration; treated with IV fluids

b)

Increased lung pressure and possible heart failure; treated with medications, catheter procedure, or surgery

c)

Kidney failure; treated with dialysis

d)

Seizures; treated with antiepileptics

6.

When should murmurs go away in a baby with a healthy heart?

a)

1–2 weeks, sometimes up to 6 months

b)

By age 5

c)

Immediately after birth

d)

Only if treated with surgery

7.

What are TB precautions?

a)

Contact isolation, gloves only

b)

Airborne precautions: negative pressure room, N95 mask, patient wears mask outside, education

c)

Droplet precautions: surgical mask, gown

d)

Standard precautions only

8.

What is the highest risk in Cystic Fibrosis?

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic lung infections (pneumonia) and respiratory failure

c)

Hypertension

d)

Kidney failure

9.

What is a major aspiration risk for preschoolers (3–5 years)?

a)

Soda and candy

b)

Grapes, detergent pods, and button batteries

c)

Juice boxes

d)

Cereal

10.

What is the immediate emergency intervention for stridor?

a)

Give oral fluids

b)

Immediate intubation

c)

Reassure parents only

d)

Give cough medicine

11.

What is a sign of croup?

a)

High-pitched wheeze

b)

Barking cough

c)

Productive cough with sputum

d)

Hoarse voice only

12.

How do newborns regulate their respiratory system after birth?

a)

Through mechanical ventilation only

b)

By surfactant, physical changes, and neural cues triggering the first breath

c)

By maternal oxygen supply for several hours

d)

By continuous chest compressions

13.

Which infants are most vulnerable to thermoregulation issues?

a)

Full-term infants

b)

Preterm, low birth weight, and sick infants

c)

Infants with large birth weight

d)

Infants born by C-section

14.

What is a common symptom of infection in pediatric patients?

a)

Constipation

b)

Vomiting and fevers

c)

Hypertension

d)

Jaundice only at night

15.

Which complication is associated with infants of mothers with gestational diabetes?

a)

Hypoglycemia, respiratory distress, jaundice, macrosomia

b)

Hypertension, kidney failure, seizures

c)

Cleft palate and cleft lip

d)

Blindness and deafness

16.

What might a bulging fontanel suggest?

a)

Dehydration

b)

High intracranial pressure (e.g., meningitis, hydrocephalus)

c)

Normal development

d)

Vitamin deficiency

17.

Which interventions best support children with Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)?

a)

No intervention needed

b)

Early intervention, speech therapy, and parental support groups

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Strict bed rest

18.

What is the nursing priority when assessing for abuse in a pediatric setting?

a)

Alerting the parent immediately

b)

Confirm suspicion calmly and prioritize safety without alarming the parent

c)

Ignore suspicion unless severe bruises are present

d)

Document later without action

19.

After a tonsillectomy, what is the highest risk between days 3–5?

a)

Infection only

b)

Hemorrhaging when scabs fall off

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Dehydration

20.

Which flu type is more deadly and often included in vaccines?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

21.

Which pain scale should you use for children 5 years and under?

a)

Numeric 1–10 scale

b)

FACES / FLACC / COMFORT

c)

Visual Analog Scale

d)

Wong-Baker Scale only

22.

What is an example of atraumatic care in pediatrics?

a)

Forcing the child to comply with procedures

b)

Giving them the iPad (distractions) to reduce trauma

c)

Ignoring the child’s fears

d)

Restraining the child without consent

23.

Which of the following helps prevent ear infections in children?

a)

Bottle propping and pacifier use

b)

Breastfeeding, feeding upright, vaccines, no smoking

c)

Laying babies flat after feeding

d)

Giving honey under 1 year old

24.

What nutrient helps burns heal faster?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Protein

c)

Fat

d)

Iron

25.

Reye syndrome is linked with which medication in children?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Antibiotics

26.

How do you calculate Naegele’s rule for EDD (Estimated Delivery Date)?

a)

Add 6 months and 10 days to LMP

b)

Subtract 3 months, add 7 days, then add 1 year to LMP

c)

Add 9 months to conception date

d)

Subtract 2 weeks from last missed period

27.

Which are positive signs of pregnancy?

a)

Amenorrhea, breast changes, N/V

b)

Positive urine pregnancy test

c)

Fetal heart tones, fetal movement palpated/seen by examiner, ultrasound visualization

d)

Chadwick and Hegar signs

28.

What are the stages of labor?

a)

Only dilation and birth

b)

Latent → Active → Delivery → Recovery

c)

Four stages: dilation, pushing, placenta delivery, first 2 hours postpartum

d)

Pregnancy, labor, recovery

29.

A patient in 4th stage of labor with episiotomy requires which nursing intervention?

a)

Give antibiotics immediately

b)

Frequent checks every 15 min for 1 hour, ice packs 20–30 min on/off

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Insert foley catheter

30.

Which intervention increases space in a woman’s pelvis during labor?

a)

Ambulating frequently

b)

Keeping bladder empty by encouraging regular urination

c)

Epidural placement

d)

Side-lying only

31.

A mother feels the urge to push. What should the nurse do?

a)

Encourage pushing immediately

b)

Encourage her only if the provider is present

c)

Tell her to hold her breath

d)

Give pain medication first

32.

What stage of labor is from delivery of the baby through delivery of the placenta?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

33.

What should the nurse do if a patient is experiencing a precipitous delivery?

a)

Leave to get the provider

b)

Stay in the room and prepare for labor

c)

Administer general anesthesia

d)

Encourage walking

34.

Which interventions help prevent preterm birth?

a)

Cervical cerclage, antibiotics, progesterone therapy, tocolytics, bed rest

b)

Vitamin supplements only

c)

Oxygen and fluids only

d)

Walking daily

35.

Which medication prevents preterm labor?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Tocolytics

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Indomethacin

36.

What is a major complication of preterm birth?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Respiratory distress

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Constipation

37.

How do you know when a cerclage has been effective?

a)

Patient delivers preterm but healthy

b)

Patient completes a term pregnancy

c)

Patient avoids pain

d)

Cervix stays dilated

38.

What does fetal station measure?

a)

Position of baby’s head to cervix dilation

b)

Relationship of presenting fetal part to maternal ischial spines

c)

Maternal pelvic size

d)

Duration of contractions

39.

What is a normal fetal heart rate?

a)

80–100 bpm

b)

100–120 bpm

c)

110–160 bpm

d)

170–200 bpm

40.

What intervention helps improve fetal oxygenation during labor?

a)

Give oxytocin

b)

Encourage pushing

c)

Administer fluid bolus

d)

Restrict oral fluids

41.

What is the priority intervention after an amniotomy to induce labor?

a)

Assess maternal blood pressure

b)

Assess fetal heart rate

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Start oxytocin infusion

42.

Which interventions treat abnormal fetal heart rate?

a)

Reposition mother, IV fluids, oxygen, stop oxytocin

b)

Administer oxytocin and encourage pushing

c)

Apply fundal pressure

d)

Start magnesium sulfate infusion

43.

What are common causes of fetal tachycardia?

a)

Maternal fever and dehydration

b)

Maternal hypothermia

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Fetal hypoglycemia

44.

What is cord prolapse?

a)

Cord wrapping around fetal neck

b)

Cord lies below presenting fetal part, causing risk of hypoxia

c)

Cord fails to deliver with placenta

d)

Cord insertion into placenta

45.

Fetal monitor detects variable decelerations. What should the nurse do?

a)

Call for immediate C-section

b)

Reposition mother to relieve cord compression

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Stop maternal pushing

46.

What does VEAL CHOP stand for?

a)

Variability, Early, Acceleration, Late – Cord, Head, OK, Placenta

b)

Variable → Cord compression; Early → Head compression; Accelerations → OK; Late → Placenta problems

c)

Very Early Accelerations Linger – Cord Head OK Placenta

d)

Ventilation Every After Labor – Cord Hemorrhage Oxygen Placenta

47.

Which finding indicates true labor?

a)

Irregular contractions that go away with activity

b)

Pain mild, limited to lower abdomen

c)

Contractions increasing in strength with cervical change

d)

No cervical change

48.

Which fetal heart finding requires immediate intervention during labor?

a)

A) Early decelerations

b)

B) Variable decelerations

c)

C) Accelerations

d)

D) Late deceleration

49.

Q49. Which immunization is considered safe during pregnancy?

a)

A) MMR

b)

B) Varicella

c)

C) Flu vaccine

d)

D) Smallpox

50.

Which are examples of non-pharmacological pain management in labor?

a)

A) Sacral counterpressure, position change, birthing ball, massage

b)

B) Epidural anesthesia only

c)

C) General anesthesia

d)

D) IV narcotics

51.

What is Pitocin used for in labor and delivery?

A) Pain relief

B) Help prevent postpartum hemorrhage and promote contractions

C) Induce respiratory depression

D) Soften the cervix

✅ Correct Answer: B

a)

A) Pain relief

b)

B) Help prevent postpartum hemorrhage and promote contractions

c)

C) Induce respiratory depression

d)

D) Soften the cervix

52.

What are potential complications of Pitocin induction of labor?

a)

A) Placental abruption, uterine rupture, postpartum hemorrhage

b)

B) Maternal fever only

c)

C) Fetal tachycardia

d)

D) Hypertension only

53.

Which intervention would NOT be included for a hypotensive patient in labor?

a)

A) Apply oxygen

b)

B) Administer IV fluids

c)

C) Side-lying position

d)

D) Magnesium sulfate

54.

What maternal positioning helps manage back labor?

a)

A) Supine with legs elevated

b)

B) Reposition on hands and knees or birthing ball, apply sacral pressure

c)

C) Trendelenburg

d)

D) Left side only

55.

Q55. What nursing intervention helps manage dystocia (difficult labor)?

a)

A) Encourage positions that favor fetal rotation and descent

b)

B) Keep patient flat in bed

c)

C) Administer aspirin

d)

D) Apply fundal pressure

56.

Q56. What does effacement mean in labor?

a)

A) Dilating of the cervix

b)

B) Thinning of the cervix

c)

C) Baby’s station relative to ischial

d)

D) Bag of waters rupturing

57.

Q57. What nutrient deficiency might PICA in pregnancy indicate?

a)

A) Vitamin C

b)

B) Vitamin A

c)

C) Low iron

d)

D) Low calcium