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PEDS exam questions

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Part of the health assessment of a newborn is observing the infant‘s breathing pattern. A

full-term newborn‘s breathing pattern is predominantly

a)

abdominal with synchronous chest movements

b)

chest breathing with nasal flaring

c)

diaphragmatic with chest retraction

d)

deep with a regular rhythm.

2.

While assessing the newborn, the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is

a)

80 to 100 beats/min

b)

100 to 120 beats/min

c)

120 to 160 beats/min

d)

150 to 180 beats/min

3.

A new mother states that her infant must be cold because thebaby‘s hands and feet are blue.

thenurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called

a)

acrocyanosis

b)

erythema neonatorum

c)

harlequin color

d)

vernix caseosa

4.

While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn

symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a C with the thumb

and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive

a)

tonic neck reflex

b)

glabellar (Myerson) reflex

c)

Babinski reflex

d)

Moro reflex

5.

While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse strokes the sole of the foot upward along the lateral aspect of the sole and then across the ball of the foot. The toes hyperextend, with dorsiflexion of the big toe. The nurse would document this finding as a positive

a)

tonic neck reflex

b)

glabellar (Myerson) reflex

c)

Babinski reflex

d)

Moro reflex

6.

Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant‘s foot from the heel to

the ball of the foot?

a)

tonic neck reflex

b)

glabellar (Myerson) reflex

c)

Babinski reflex

d)

Moro reflex

7.

A first-time father is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. He asks the nurse, What is this black, sticky stuff in her diaper? The nurse‘s best response is

a)

That‘s meconium, which is your baby‘s first stool. It‘s normal

b)

That‘s transitional stool

c)

That means your baby is bleeding internally

d)

Oh, don‘t worry about that. It‘s okay

8.

As related to the normal functioning of the renal system in newborns, nurses should be aware

that

a)

the pediatrician should be notified if the newborn has not voided in 24 hours.

b)

breastfed infants likely will void more often during the first days after birth

c)

Brick dust‖ or blood on a diaper is always a cause to notify the physician

d)

weight loss from fluid loss and other normal factors should be made up in 4 to 7

days

9.

A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter‘s skin looks yellow. In the nurse‘s

explanation of physiologic jaundice, what fact should be included?

a)

Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life.

b)

Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and

infant blood types

c)

The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between 72 to 96 hours of life

d)

This condition is also known as ―breast milk jaundice

10.

A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because

the meconium stool is

a)

seen at age 3 days

b)

the residue of a milk curd

c)

passed in the first 12 hours of life

d)

lighter in color and looser in consistency

11.

The parents of a newborn ask thenurse how much thenewborn can see. theparents specifically

want to know what type of visual stimuli they should provide for their newborn. the nurse

responds to the parents by telling them

a)

Infants can see very little until about 3 months of age

b)

Infants can track their parent‘s eyes within 12 inches and distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns

c)

The infant‘s eyes must be protected. Infants enjoy looking at brightly colored

stripes

d)

It‘s important to shield the newborn‘s eyes. Overhead lights help them see better

12.

With regard to the newborn‘s developing cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that

a)

the heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min

b)

heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern

c)

the point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall

d)

persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

13.

The nurse caring for the newborn should be aware that the sensory system least mature at

the time of birth is

a)

vision

b)

hearing

c)

smell

d)

taste

14.

An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. the nurse is conducting the initial assessment.

Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. the Apgar assessment is performed

a)

only if the newborn is in obvious distress.

b)

once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.

c)

at least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

d)

every 15 minutes during the newborn‘s first hour after birth

15.

A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant‘s eyes and why it is

needed. the nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the erythromycin ophthalmic

ointment is to

a)

destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant

blind

b)

prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant‘s eyes potentially

acquired from the birth canal

c)

prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant‘s

eyes, leading to dry eyes

d)

prevent the infant‘s eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see

16.

A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. An appropriate

nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving

phototherapy by this method would be to

a)

apply an oil-based lotion to the newborn's skin to prevent dying and cracking

b)

limit the newborn's intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

c)

place eye shields over the newborn's closed eyes

d)

change the newborn's position every 4 hours

17.

The nurse‘s initial action when caring for an infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to

a)

notify the physician immediately

b)

place a cap on the infant's head

c)

tell the mother that the infant must be kept in the nursery and observed for the next 4

hours

d)

change the formula because this is a sign of formula intolerance

18.

An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n)

a)

infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further

testing

b)

infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation

c)

prediction of a future free of neurologic problems

d)

infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed

again at 5 minutes after birth

19.

A mother expresses fear about changing her infant‘s diaper after he is circumcised. What does

the woman need to be taught to take care of the infant when she gets home?

a)

Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours

b)

Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5

minutes if bleeding occurs

c)

Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after

each diaper change

d)

Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to

prevent infection

20.

With regard to umbilical cord care, nurses should be aware that

a)

the stump can easily become infected

b)

a nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for

assistance

c)

the cord clamp is removed at cord separation

d)

the average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days

21.

As part of their teaching function at discharge, nurses should educate parents regarding safe

sleep. Which statement is incorrect?

a)

Prevent exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections

b)

Keep the infant away from secondhand smoke

c)

Avoid loose bedding, water beds, and beanbag chairs

d)

Place the infant on his or her abdomen to sleep

22.

The normal term infant has little difficulty clearing the airway after birth. Most secretions are

brought up to the oropharynx by the cough reflex. However, if the infant has excess secretions,

the mouth and nasal passages can be cleared easily with a bulb syringe. When instructing

parents on the correct use of this piece of equipment, it is important that the nurse teach them to

a)

avoid suctioning the nares

b)

insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth

c)

suction the mouth first

d)

remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished

23.

Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If theinfant is displaying physiologic

or behavioral cues indicating pain, measures should be taken to manage thepain. Examples of

nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (Select all that apply.)

a)

swaddling

b)

nonnutritive sucking

c)

skin-to-skin contact with the mother

d)

sucrose

e)

acetaminophen

24.

Hearing loss is one of thegenetic disorders included in theuniversal screening program.

Auditory screening of all newborns within thefirst month of life is recommended by

theAmerican Academy of Pediatrics. Reasons for having this testing performed include

(Select all that apply.)

a)

prevention or reduction of developmental delay

b)

reassurance for concerned new parents

c)

early identification and treatment

d)

helping the child communicate better

e)

recommendation by the Joint Committee on Infant Hearing.

25.

A new mother recalls from prenatal class that she should try to feed her newborn daughter

when she exhibits feeding readiness cues rather than waiting until her infant is crying

frantically. On the basis of this information, this woman should feed her infant about every 2.5

to 3 hours when she

a)

waves her arms in the air

b)

makes sucking motions

c)

has hiccups

d)

stretches her legs out straight

26.

A new father is ready to take his wife and newborn son home. He proudly tells the nurse who

is discharging them that within the next week he plans to start feeding the infant cereal between breastfeeding sessions. the nurse can explain to him that beginning solid foods before 4 to 6 months may

a)

decrease the infant‘s intake of sufficient calories

b)

lead to early cessation of breastfeeding

c)

help the infant sleep through the night

d)

limit the infant‘s growth

27.

A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant; however, her husband is not convinced that

there are any scientific reasons to do so. thenurse can give thecouple printed information

comparing breastfeeding and bottle-feeding. Which statement is most accurate? Bottle-feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas

a)

increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies

b)

helps the infant sleep through the night

c)

ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed

d)

requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant

28.

A after birth woman telephones about her 4-day-old infant. She is not scheduled for a weight

check until the infant is 10 days old, and she is worried about whether breastfeeding is going

well. Effective breastfeeding is indicated by the newborn who

a)

sleeps for 6 hours at a time between feedings

b)

has at least one breast milk stool every 24 hours

c)

gains 1 to 2 ounces per week

d)

has at least 6 to 8 wet diapers per day

29.

A breastfeeding woman develops engorged breasts at 3 days after birth. What action would

help this woman achieve her goal of reducing the engorgement? the woman

a)

skips feedings to let her sore breasts rest

b)

avoids using a breast pump

c)

breastfeeds her infant every 2 hours

d)

reduces her fluid intake for 24 hours

30.

A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as

soon as possible. the nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant

a)

with his arms folded together over his chest

b)

curled up in a fetal position

c)

with his head cupped in her hand

d)

with his head and body in alignment

31.

A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughter‘s needs while feeding her

commercially prepared infant formula. the nurse should evaluate the mother‘s knowledge about appropriate infant care. the mother meets her child‘s needs when she

a)

adds rice cereal to her formula at 2 weeks of age to ensure adequate nutrition

b)

warms the bottles using a microwave oven

c)

burps her infant during and after the feeding as needed

d)

refrigerates any leftover formula for the next feeding

32.

The nurse is discussing storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in

the special care unit. What statement would indicate that the mother needs additional teaching?

a)

I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months

b)

I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months

c)

I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 8 hours

d)

I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days

33.

According to the recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics on infant nutrition

a)

infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life

b)

infants fed on formula should be started on solid food sooner than breastfed

infants

c)

if infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months, they should receive

cow‘s milk, not formula

d)

after 6 months mothers should shift from breast milk to cow‘s milk

34.

The nurse is explaining the benefits associated with breastfeeding to a new mother. Which

statement by the nurse would be inaccurate and provide conflicting information to the patient?

a)

Women who breastfeed have a decreased risk of breast cancer

b)

Breastfeeding is an effective method of birth control

c)

Breastfeeding increases bone density

d)

Breastfeeding may enhance after birth weight loss

35.

With regard to the nutrient needs of breastfed and formula-fed infants, nurses should

understand that

a)

breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates

b)

during the first 3 months breastfed infants consume more energy than do

formula-fed infants

c)

breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily at least during

the first 2 months

d)

vitamin K injections at birth are not needed for infants fed on specially enriched

formula

36.

In assisting the breastfeeding mother position the baby, nurses should keep in mind that

a)

the cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth

b)

women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position

c)

whatever the position used, the infant is belly to belly with the mother

d)

while supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput

37.

The process whereby parents awaken the infant to feed every 3 hours during the day and at

least every 4 hours at night is

a)

known as demand feeding

b)

necessary during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth

c)

used to set up the supply-meets-demand system

d)

a way to control cluster feeding

38.

To prevent nipple trauma, the nurse should instruct the new mother to

a)

limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes

b)

position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth

c)

assess the nipples before each feeding

d)

wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water

39.

A nurse is discussing thesigns and symptoms of mastitis with a mother who is breastfeeding.

What signs and symptoms should the nurse include in her discussion? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Breast tenderness

b)

Warmth in the breast

c)

An area of redness on the breast often resembling the shape of a pie wedge

d)

A small white blister on the tip of the nipple

e)

Fever and flu-like symptoms

40.

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization

the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lbs, 6 ounces). the nurse‘s most

appropriate action is to

a)

leave the infant in the room with the mother.

b)

take the infant immediately to the nursery

c)

perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for

gestational age

d)

monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of

hypoglycemia

41.

Infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs) are at higher risk for developing

a)

anemia

b)

hyponatremia

c)

respiratory distress syndrome

d)

sepsis

42.

An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighing 4.1 kg. theinfant

appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. the tremors are most likely

the result of

a)

birth injury

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

seizures

43.

A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit after being delivered at 29 weeks

of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was

uncomplicated until premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. the newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. the parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. the nurse's most appropriate action would be to

a)

wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer

b)

go to the parents, introduce himself or herself, and gently encourage the parents to

come meet their infant; explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn

c)

leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so they can have some

privacy

d)

tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition, and caution them to

avoid touching their baby

44.

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa.

the signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include

a)

hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis

b)

abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools

c)

hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color

d)

scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output

45.

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure

dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician‘s office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On

artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. the nurse caring for

the infant after birth should anticipate

a)

meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin

b)

excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress

syndrome

c)

golden yellow- to green stained–skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an

increased amount of subcutaneous fat

d)

hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance

46.

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an acute inflammatory disease of thegastrointestinal

mucosa that can progress to perforation of thebowel. Care is supportive; however, known

interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant,

the nurse must understand which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of

NEC

a)

early enteral feedings

b)

breastfeeding

c)

exchange transfusion

d)

prophylactic probiotics

47.

A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A

cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. the fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is

180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1

and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history,

the cause of this newborn‘s distress is most likely to be

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

phrenic nerve injury

c)

respiratory distress syndrome

d)

sepsis

48.

The most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection is

a)

good hand washing

b)

isolation of infected infants

c)

separate gown technique

d)

Standard Precautions

49.

A pregnant woman presents in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth her

infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. theinfant

also is microcephalic. On thebasis of her infant‘s physical findings, this woman should be

questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Cocaine

c)

Heroin

d)

Marijuana

50.

A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include

a)

administering chloral hydrate for sedation

b)

feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest

c)

swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly

d)

playing soft music during feeding

51.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be perinatally transmitted

a)

a. only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation.

b)

by a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments

c)

only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid

d)

through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother

52.

The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of

cognitive impairment in the United States?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Tobacco

c)

Marijuana

d)

Heroin

53.

Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. the first step in the provision of this care is

a)

pharmacologic treatment

b)

reduction of environmental stimuli

c)

neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring

d)

adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance

54.

While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that the most common

birth injury is

a)

to the soft tissues

b)

caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery

c)

fracture of the humerus and femur

d)

fracture of the clavicle

55.

Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility?

a)

Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous

for the Rh factor.

b)

Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative

c)

Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous

for the Rh factor

d)

Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive

56.

The goal of treatment of the infant with phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency (PAH) is to

a)

cure mental retardation

b)

prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage, which leads to mental retardation

c)

prevent gastrointestinal symptoms

d)

cure the urinary tract infection