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ENDO and THY

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Thionamides are primarily used to treat which condition?

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Thyroid cancer

c)

Graves’ disease

d)

Thyroid storm prevention

2.

How do thionamides reduce thyroid hormone levels?

a)

Block iodine absorption

b)

Prevent thyroid hormone synthesis

c)

Destroy thyroid tissue

d)

Increase TSH secretion

3.

Which adverse effect of thionamides requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Fatigue

c)

Low granulocyte count

d)

Cold intolerance

4.

Propylthiouracil (PTU) works by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking thyroid peroxidase

b)

Increasing T4 production

c)

Stimulating pituitary TSH

d)

Replacing thyroid hormone

5.

Which adverse effect is associated with propylthiouracil?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Liver damage

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

6.

A client taking PTU should be monitored for which laboratory abnormality?

a)

Elevated potassium

b)

Decreased granulocyte count

c)

Increased calcium

d)

Low sodium

7.

Which symptom may indicate hypothyroidism as an adverse effect of thionamide therapy?

a)

Heat intolerance

b)

Weight loss

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Diarrhea

8.

Thyroid suppression therapy is primarily used for which condition?

a)

Graves’ disease

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Thyroid cancer

d)

Thyroid storm

9.

Thyroid suppression therapy works by which action?

a)

Increasing TSH secretion

b)

Destroying thyroid tissue

c)

Administering synthetic thyroxine

d)

Blocking iodine uptake

10.

The goal of thyroid suppression therapy in cancer treatment is to:

a)

Replace missing T3

b)

Prevent growth of cancer cells

c)

Reduce iodine levels

d)

Increase metabolic rate

11.

Levothyroxine is classified as which type of medication?

a)

Antithyroid drug

b)

Beta blocker

c)

Synthetic thyroid hormone

d)

Radioactive isotope

12.

Levothyroxine dosing is primarily based on:

a)

Age

b)

Weight

c)

Gender

d)

Diet

13.

Which route may be used to administer levothyroxine?

a)

Oral only

b)

IV only

c)

Oral or IV

d)

Subcutaneous

14.

Which finding suggests levothyroxine overdose?

a)

Cold intolerance

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Manifestations of hyperthyroidism

d)

Weight gain

15.

Levothyroxine is contraindicated in clients with:

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Untreated hyperthyroidism

c)

Obesity

d)

Iron-deficiency anemia

16.

Which condition increases risk when taking levothyroxine?

a)

Asthma

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Cardiac disease

d)

Osteoarthritis

17.

How should levothyroxine be administered for best absorption?

a)

With meals

b)

At bedtime with food

c)

1 hour before meals

d)

With calcium supplements

18.

Which instruction should the nurse provide to a client taking levothyroxine?

a)

Stop medication when symptoms improve

b)

Take at the same time daily

c)

Double dose if missed

d)

Take with antacids

19.

Which lab value is most important to monitor with levothyroxine therapy?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Creatinine

c)

TSH levels

d)

Hemoglobin

20.

Which adverse effect may occur if levothyroxine dose is too high?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Constipation

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Weight gain

21.

Which medication is preferred for treating Graves’ disease during pregnancy?

a)

Methimazole

b)

Propylthiouracil

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

Radioactive iodine

22.

Which statement best explains the purpose of exogenous insulin therapy?

a)

To cure diabetes mellitus

b)

To supplement inadequate endogenous insulin

c)

To replace oral antidiabetic agents permanently

d)

To stimulate pancreatic beta cell growth

23.

Insulin therapy mimics which pancreatic secretion pattern?

a)

Continuous release only

b)

Prandial release only

c)

Basal and prandial release

d)

Stress-related release

24.

Which client requires insulin therapy for survival?

a)

Type 2 diabetes controlled with diet

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

d)

Prediabetes

25.

Rapid-acting insulin is primarily used to control which glucose level?

a)

Fasting glucose

b)

Nocturnal glucose

c)

Postprandial glucose

d)

Random glucose

26.

Rapid-acting insulin should be administered at which time?

a)

1 hour before meals

b)

Immediately before meals

c)

At bedtime

d)

Once daily

27.

Which insulin has an onset of 30–60 minutes?

a)

Rapid-acting insulin

b)

Regular insulin

c)

NPH insulin

d)

Long-acting insulin

28.

Which insulin appears cloudy due to the presence of protamine?

a)

Regular insulin

b)

Insulin glargine

c)

NPH insulin

d)

Insulin lispro

29.

Which insulin is the only one that may be mixed with short-acting insulin?

a)

Insulin glargine

b)

Insulin detemir

c)

NPH insulin

d)

Insulin degludec

30.

Which insulin provides basal glucose control without a pronounced peak?

a)

Regular insulin

b)

NPH insulin

c)

Insulin glargine

d)

Rapid-acting insulin

31.

Which instruction is essential for a client using an insulin pump?

a)

Skip meals if glucose is normal

b)

Remove the pump before MRI or CT

c)

Store insulin at room temperature only

d)

Avoid rotating infusion sites

32.

The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect with insulin therapy?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypertension

33.

Which client with type 2 diabetes may require insulin therapy?

a)

Controlled with diet alone

b)

Experiencing illness or surgery

c)

Newly diagnosed

d)

With mild hyperglycemia only

34.

Metformin is classified as which type of medication?

a)

Sulfonylurea

b)

Biguanide

c)

DPP-4 inhibitor

d)

SGLT-2 inhibitor

35.

What is the primary action of metformin?

a)

Increase insulin secretion

b)

Decrease hepatic glucose production

c)

Increase glucose absorption

d)

Block glucagon release

36.

Metformin should be temporarily discontinued when?

a)

Blood glucose is normal

b)

Before contrast studies or surgery

c)

During exercise

d)

With weight loss

37.

Which adverse effect is a rare but serious complication of metformin?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Weight gain

38.

Which condition is a contraindication for metformin therapy?

a)

Obesity

b)

Prediabetes

c)

Kidney disease

39.

Vasculitis is a potential adverse effect of which medication?

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Methimazole

c)

Propylthiouracil

d)

Radioactive iodine

40.

A client taking antithyroid medication reports fever and sore throat. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Encourage fluids

b)

Administer acetaminophen

c)

Notify the provider

d)

Reassure the client

41.

Which medication is used as lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism?

a)

Propylthiouracil

b)

Methimazole

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

Iodine

42.

Why should levothyroxine not be taken with calcium or iron supplements?

a)

Increased toxicity

b)

Reduced absorption

c)

Increased hypoglycemia risk

d)

Liver damage

43.

Which class of drugs increases insulin secretion and risk of hypoglycemia?

a)

Biguanides

b)

Sulfonylureas

c)

DPP-4 inhibitors

d)

GLP-1 agonists

44.

Which medication is a sulfonylurea?

a)

Metformin

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Glipizide

d)

Canagliflozin

45.

Which adverse effect is most associated with sulfonylureas?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Lactic acidosis

46.

Glucosidase inhibitors reduce blood glucose by which mechanism?

a)

Increasing insulin secretion

b)

Blocking renal glucose reabsorption

c)

Slowing carbohydrate absorption

d)

Increasing insulin sensitivity

47.

When should glucosidase inhibitors be taken?

a)

At bedtime

b)

With the first bite of each meal

c)

Between meals

d)

One hour after meals

48.

Effectiveness of glucosidase inhibitors is best evaluated by which value?

a)

Fasting glucose

b)

Hemoglobin A1C

c)

2-hour postprandial glucose

d)

Random glucose

49.

Which statement about DPP-4 inhibitors is correct?

a)

High risk for hypoglycemia

b)

Cause significant weight gain

c)

Promotes release of insulin

d)

Replace insulin therapy

50.

Which medication is classified as a DPP-4 inhibitor?

a)

Canagliflozin

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Semaglutide

d)

Glipizide

51.

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT-2) lower glucose primarily by:

a)

Increasing insulin secretion

b)

Slowing gastric emptying

c)

Increasing urinary glucose excretion

d)

Decreasing hepatic glucose production

52.

Which medication is an example of an SGLT-2 inhibitor?

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Acarbose

c)

Canagliflozin

d)

Semaglutide

53.

Which medication is the only available amylin analog?

a)

Semaglutide

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Pramlintide

d)

Metformin

54.

Pramlintide should be administered in which manner?

a)

Orally once daily

b)

Mixed with insulin

c)

Subcutaneously before meals

d)

Intramuscularly

55.

Which teaching is essential for a client taking pramlintide?

a)

Skip meals

b)

Increase insulin dose

c)

Carry fast-acting glucose

d)

Inject into upper arm

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