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HA FINAL

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse assesses a 68-year-old with dyspnea and a productive cough. On posterior chest, tactile fremitus is increased over the right lower lobe, percussion is dull, and bronchial breath sounds are heard in that area. Which finding most strongly supports the nurse’s suspected diagnosis?

a)

Hyperresonance to percussion over the affected area

b)

Equal chest expansion bilaterally without lag

c)

Whispered pectoriloquy present over the right lower lobe

d)

Diffuse expiratory wheezes throughout both lungs

2.

During cardiac auscultation of a 56-year-old, the nurse hears a soft, low-pitched extra sound immediately after S2 at the apex with the bell, most pronounced in left lateral decubitus. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

S3 consistent with volume overload and possible heart failure

b)

S4 consistent with stiff ventricle from long-standing hypertension

c)

Opening snap of mitral stenosis

d)

Pericardial friction rub from pericarditis

3.

A 34-year-old presents with unilateral calf pain after a 6-hour flight. The leg is warm, swollen, and tender with increased circumference compared to the other leg. Which initial nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage ambulation to promote venous return

b)

Apply firm massage to the calf to relieve pain

c)

Elevate the leg and notify the provider immediately

d)

Place a heating pad to increase blood flow

4.

The nurse assesses orthostatic vital signs. Supine BP is 128/78 mmHg and HR 78. After standing 3 minutes, BP is 104/66 and HR 102 with dizziness. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Normal postural change, no intervention

b)

Orthostatic hypotension likely due to volume depletion or meds

c)

Hypertensive crisis requiring IV antihypertensives

d)

Vasovagal episode; advise breath-holding

5.

A patient reports chest pain. Which description most strongly suggests myocardial ischemia needing urgent evaluation?

a)

Sharp, localized pain reproducible with palpation, worsened by movement

b)

Pressure-like substernal pain radiating to the left arm, occurring with exertion and relieved by rest

c)

Pleuritic pain worse on inspiration, relieved by leaning forward

d)

Burning epigastric pain after large meals, improved with antacids

6.

On cardiac exam, where is the point of maximal impulse (apical impulse) normally palpated in adults?

a)

2nd intercostal space at right sternal border

b)

3rd intercostal space at left sternal border

c)

5th intercostal space at left mid-clavicular line

d)

4th intercostal space at right sternal border

7.

A nurse suspects peripheral arterial disease (PAD) in a 72-year-old with calf pain when walking. Which additional finding most strongly supports PAD?

a)

Brown hyperpigmentation around ankles with pitting edema

b)

Dependent rubor and delayed capillary refill in toes

c)

Warm skin temperature with normal pulses

d)

Pain relieved by standing still with legs dependent

8.

A 24-year-old with asthma presents with severe respiratory distress but minimal breath sounds (“silent chest”). SpO2 is 86% on room air. Which priority action is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage slow deep breathing exercises

b)

Administer short-acting bronchodilator and prepare for escalation

c)

Perform chest physiotherapy to mobilize secretions

d)

Position supine to reduce work of breathing

9.

A nurse notes a lateral displacement of the apical impulse to the 6th intercostal space, anterior axillary line. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

b)

Left ventricular hypertrophy or dilation

c)

Pericardial effusion

d)

Aortic stenosis with small left ventricle

10.

In assessing jugular venous pressure (JVP), the nurse positions the patient at 30–45 degrees. Which finding indicates elevated right atrial pressure?

a)

Visible external jugular veins only when seated upright

b)

Jugular venous pulsation 5 cm above the sternal angle at 45 degrees

c)

Carotid pulse amplitude increased with inspiration

d)

Apical impulse not palpable

11.

A patient with right upper quadrant pain and fever has a positive Murphy sign. Which structure is most implicated?

a)

Appendix

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Spleen

d)

Stomach

12.

Which abdominal exam sequence is correct and why?

a)

Inspect → Palpate → Percuss → Auscultate, because palpation stimulates bowel activity

b)

Inspect → Auscultate → Percuss → Palpate, because palpation/percussion can alter bowel sounds

c)

Auscultate → Palpate → Percuss → Inspect, because listening must occur before exposure

d)

Percuss → Auscultate → Inspect → Palpate, because percussion is least invasive

13.

A nurse assesses a 78-year-old with new confusion, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, and dark urine. Which intervention is most appropriate first?

a)

Restrict fluids to prevent overload

b)

Encourage fluid intake and evaluate intake and output closely

c)

Start diuretics to reduce edema

d)

Administer antipyretics regardless of temperature

14.

During cranial nerve testing, the tongue deviates to the right when protruded. Which nerve and side is likely affected?

a)

Cranial nerve XII, right side

b)

Cranial nerve XII, left side

c)

Cranial nerve VII, right side

d)

Cranial nerve VII, left side

15.

A nurse suspects pericarditis. Which auscultatory finding supports this diagnosis?

a)

Harsh systolic ejection murmur at right upper sternal border

b)

Blowing holosystolic murmur at apex radiating to axilla

c)

Scratchy, high-pitched sound best heard when the patient leans forward

d)

Early diastolic blowing murmur along left sternal border

16.

A patient presents with unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and tenderness and now has acute chest pain and dyspnea. What is the priority action?

a)

Elevate the affected leg and provide warm compresses

b)

Encourage ambulation to prevent further clot formation

c)

Activate emergency response; suspect pulmonary embolism

d)

Administer aspirin and observe

17.

A nurse performs the Allen test before placing a radial arterial line. Which outcome indicates adequate collateral circulation?

a)

Hand remains pale after release of ulnar artery

b)

Color returns to the hand within 3–5 seconds after release

c)

Capillary refill greater than 4 seconds in all fingers

d)

Doppler signal absent in radial artery

18.

The nurse hears fine crackles at the lung bases of a patient with dyspnea. Which mechanism best explains this sound?

a)

Airflow through narrowed bronchi

b)

Movement of air through fluid in small airways or alveoli

c)

Vibration of thick secretions in large airways

d)

Upper airway obstruction at the larynx

19.

A 70-year-old with long-standing hypertension has a new S4 at the apex. What does this indicate?

a)

Early diastolic rapid filling due to volume overload

b)

Atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle

c)

Valve leaflet calcification causing opening snap

d)

Pericardial friction from inflammation

20.

Which finding most strongly suggests venous insufficiency rather than arterial disease?

a)

Ulcer at the medial malleolus with irregular margins and heavy exudate

b)

Cool, hairless skin with decreased pulses and toe ulcers

c)

Dependent rubor and delayed capillary refill

d)

Claudication relieved by rest and legs dependent

21.

The nurse evaluates a patient's Mini-Cog. The patient recalls 0 of 3 words and draws an abnormal clock. What is the most appropriate conclusion?

a)

Normal cognition; no further testing needed

b)

Possible cognitive impairment; further evaluation warranted

c)

Acute delirium due to infection

d)

Major depressive episode

22.

Which is the most accurate statement about assessing carotid arteries?

a)

Palpate both carotids simultaneously to compare amplitude

b)

Auscultate for bruits and palpate one side at a time to prevent syncope

c)

Massage the carotid sinus to assess baroreceptor function

d)

Perform vigorous palpation to detect thrills

23.

A patient reports epigastric pain radiating to the back with nausea. The pain worsens after fatty meals. Which organ is most likely involved?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Pancreas

c)

Stomach

d)

Spleen

24.

During respiratory assessment, the nurse notes decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right lower posterior lung with tracheal deviation to the left. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Right lower lobe pneumonia

b)

Large right pleural effusion

c)

Right pneumothorax

d)

Diffuse bronchospasm

25.

A patient with suspected appendicitis has right lower quadrant pain, fever, and rebound tenderness. Which additional sign would most strengthen the diagnosis?

a)

Murphy sign

b)

Rovsing sign (pain in RLQ with LLQ palpation)

c)

Grey Turner sign (flank ecchymosis)

d)

Cullen sign (periumbilical ecchymosis)

26.

The nurse hears a grade 3/6 systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Mitral regurgitation

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Pulmonic regurgitation

d)

Tricuspid stenosis

27.

A 55-year-old with PAD has an ankle–brachial index (ABI) of 0.68. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Normal perfusion

b)

Borderline PAD

c)

Moderate PAD

d)

Severe ischemia

28.

The nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) and bilateral crackles in a patient with shortness of breath. Which heart failure side is most implicated by the JVD?

a)

Left-sided failure

b)

Right-sided failure

c)

High-output failure

d)

Diastolic-only failure

29.

A patient complains of calf pain after walking two blocks, relieved by rest. Pulses are diminished and the foot is cool. Which teaching is most appropriate?

a)

Wear high-compression stockings daily

b)

Elevate legs above heart level for relief

c)

Begin a supervised walking program and stop smoking

d)

Increase fluid intake and salt to improve perfusion

30.

While inspecting the abdomen, the nurse observes visible peristaltic waves moving across the epigastrium and hears high-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Normal variant in thin individuals

b)

Early small bowel obstruction

c)

Peritonitis with ileus

d)

Hepatomegaly

31.

A patient presents with a pulsatile abdominal mass, back pain, and a bruit over the aorta. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Deep palpation to assess the mass more precisely

b)

Immediate provider notification; suspect abdominal aortic aneurysm

c)

Apply firm abdominal binders to reduce pulsation

d)

Encourage supine exercises to relieve pain

32.

In a suspected pericardial friction rub, which maneuver best enhances auscultation?

a)

Have the patient take shallow breaths and lie supine

b)

Have the patient lean forward and exhale fully

c)

Place the stethoscope diaphragm over the carotids

d)

Ask the patient to perform Valsalva maneuver

33.

A 62-year-old with chronic venous insufficiency asks about ulcer care. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Keep legs dependent to improve arterial inflow

b)

Compression therapy is beneficial unless severe arterial disease coexists

c)

Ulcers on toes indicate venous etiology

d)

Avoid walking; rest with bedrest to prevent edema

34.

The nurse evaluates cranial nerves in a stroke patient. Which finding localizes a central facial nerve lesion?

a)

Complete paralysis of one side of the face including the forehead

b)

Lower facial weakness with preserved forehead movement

c)

Loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of the tongue

d)

Inability to close both eyes tightly

35.

A patient with suspected dehydration has poor skin turgor. On which site is assessing turgor most reliable in older adults?

a)

Dorsum of the hand

b)

Over the sternum or forearm

c)

Abdomen

d)

Cheek

36.

A nurse hears late inspiratory crackles that do not clear with coughing, most prominent at the bases. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Asthma

c)

Heart failure with pulmonary edema

d)

Laryngotracheitis

37.

During carotid auscultation, the nurse hears a bruit. What is the most likely pathophysiologic cause?

a)

Turbulent blood flow due to arterial narrowing

b)

Valve leaflet vibration causing regurgitant flow

c)

Venous hum from jugular valves

d)

Increased stroke volume in athletes

38.

A patient has a new diastolic murmur along the left sternal border, best heard with the diaphragm while the patient leans forward. Which lesion is most likely?

a)

Aortic regurgitation

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Pulmonic stenosis

d)

Tricuspid regurgitation

39.

In assessing a patient's oral cavity, which finding most strongly suggests oral candidiasis (thrush)?

a)

Leukoplakia that does not scrape off

b)

Creamy white plaques that scrape off leaving an erythematous base

c)

Aphthous ulcers on the buccal mucosa

d)

Smooth, beefy red tongue

40.

A nurse suspects lymphedema in a patient with unilateral nonpitting edema and thickened skin. Which additional finding strengthens the suspicion?

a)

Stemmer sign positive (cannot pinch skin at base of toes/fingers)

b)

Generalized pitting edema to the knees

c)

Varicosities and hemosiderin staining

d)

ABI of 1.1

41.

A patient with peritonitis is most likely to have which combination of findings?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds, soft abdomen, minimal tenderness

b)

Absent bowel sounds, board-like rigidity, severe rebound tenderness

c)

Tympany throughout, no guarding, normal vitals

d)

Visible peristalsis with tinkling sounds, no pain

42.

During a mental health assessment, which approach is most therapeutic for suspected intimate partner violence?

a)

“You need to leave immediately; it’s dangerous.”

b)

“Your safety is our priority. Do you feel safe at home?”

c)

“Why didn’t you report this sooner?”

d)

“I’ll keep this between us no matter what.”

43.

A patient with suspected stroke shows arm drift, facial asymmetry, and slurred speech. What is the priority action?

a)

Obtain detailed family history before calling

b)

Call emergency services immediately (time is brain)

c)

Start IV fluids and observe for 4 hours

d)

Administer high-dose aspirin without imaging

44.

The nurse notes a positive Brudzinski sign. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Cervical radiculopathy from disc herniation

b)

Meningeal irritation, often due to meningitis

c)

Lower motor neuron lesion of CN XI

d)

Benign positional vertigo

45.

The nurse suspects anterior epistaxis. Which intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Tilt head back and apply ice to the neck

b)

Lean forward and apply pressure to the soft part of the nose for 10–15 minutes

c)

Insert cotton swabs into the nares deeply

d)

Pack the posterior nasopharynx at bedside

46.

A 79-year-old with unintended weight loss, poor dentition, and social isolation is admitted. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

a)

Start diuretics to improve appetite

b)

Order a high-protein, high-calorie diet and consult nutrition

c)

Restrict fluids to prevent edema

d)

Begin strict bedrest to conserve energy

47.

In assessing for venous valve competence, which test is most appropriate?

a)

Allen test

b)

Trendelenburg test or manual compression test

c)

Ankle-brachial index

d)

Valsalva maneuver

48.

A nurse evaluates an S2 split that increases with inspiration and disappears with expiration. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Paradoxical split due to left bundle branch block

b)

Fixed split due to atrial septal defect

c)

Physiologic split due to delayed pulmonic closure on inspiration

d)

Pathologic split due to severe aortic stenosis

49.

The nurse is assessing skin lesions and uses ABCDE criteria. Which finding is most concerning for melanoma?

a)

Symmetric brown macule 4 mm with smooth borders

b)

Asymmetric variegated lesion 8 mm with irregular borders and recent growth

c)

Firm papule 2 mm with uniform color

d)

Flesh-colored dome-shaped papule unchanged for years

50.

A patient's abdominal exam: hypoactive bowel sounds, diffuse tenderness, voluntary guarding, and low-grade fever two days post-op. Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Early small bowel obstruction

b)

Postoperative ileus

c)

Acute pancreatitis

d)

Acute cholecystitis