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Non Insulin Antidiabetic Medications Quizzing

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which effect is a primary mechanism of metformin in type 2 diabetes management?

a)

Directly stimulates insulin secretion

b)

Inhibits pancreatic beta cell function

c)

Decreases hepatic glucose production

d)

Blocks intestinal glucose absorption fully

2.

A patient taking metformin reports hypoglycemia while using it alone. What is the best next consideration?

a)

Assess for another drug or cause

b)

Increase metformin dosing immediately

c)

Advise high carbohydrate snacks routinely

d)

Stop meals to reduce GI upset

3.

Which statement about metformin and insulin release is accurate?

a)

It does not stimulate insulin release

b)

It stimulates insulin regardless of glucose

c)

It replaces insulin in type 1 diabetes

d)

It blocks all endogenous insulin release

4.

Which nursing action is recommended to reduce metformin-related GI upset?

a)

Increase dose during nausea

b)

Switch to bedtime-only dosing

c)

Give on an empty stomach

d)

Administer with meals regularly

5.

Before a contrast dye study, what is the appropriate action for a patient on metformin?

a)

Administer a double morning dose

b)

Give extra fluids with dose

c)

Hold metformin around the study

d)

Continue metformin without change

6.

Long-term metformin therapy is commonly associated with risk of which deficiency?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency risk

b)

Vitamin D deficiency risk

c)

Iron deficiency anemia risk

d)

Folate deficiency risk

7.

When used alone, metformin has which effect on hypoglycemia risk?

a)

Risk only in type 1 diabetes

b)

Very high hypoglycemia risk

c)

Minimal to no risk of hypoglycemia

d)

Moderate risk in all patients

8.

Which mechanism best describes sulfonylurea action in glucose control?

a)

Reduces hepatic glucose output

b)

Stimulates pancreatic insulin release

c)

Delays carbohydrate absorption

d)

Increases insulin receptor number

9.

Why do sulfonylureas carry a higher hypoglycemia risk than metformin?

a)

They force insulin release regardless of glucose

b)

They suppress counter-regulatory hormones

c)

They reduce insulin clearance from blood

d)

They only work when glucose is elevated

10.

Which patient would NOT benefit from sulfonylureas due to mechanism requirements?

a)

Obese adult with dietary nonadherence

b)

Type 1 diabetes lacking beta cells

c)

Type 2 diabetes with insulin resistance

d)

Older adult with normal renal function

11.

Which adverse effect is commonly anticipated with sulfonylurea therapy?

a)

Hair loss is common adverse effect

b)

Severe diarrhea is common effect

c)

Photosensitivity is the hallmark effect

d)

Weight gain is common adverse effect

12.

A key nursing priority for patients on sulfonylureas is to:

a)

Avoid all carbohydrates entirely

b)

Ensure consistent meals daily

c)

Encourage meal skipping often

d)

Promote ketogenic dieting quickly

13.

Which monitoring focus is emphasized for patients taking metformin?

a)

Track potassium daily

b)

Check fasting lipids weekly

c)

Monitor liver enzymes only

d)

Monitor renal function regularly

14.

Why are sulfonylureas ineffective in type 1 diabetes?

a)

They require functioning beta cells

b)

They replace insulin injections fully

c)

They increase hepatic ketone production

d)

They block insulin receptors entirely

15.

Which statement best describes the mechanism of meglitinides such as repaglinide?

a)

Short-acting insulin secretagogue taken with meals

b)

GLP-1 receptor agonist increasing satiety signals

c)

Long-acting insulin sensitizer for skeletal muscle

d)

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor delaying carbohydrate absorption

16.

A patient on repaglinide skips lunch. What is the safest action regarding the dose?

a)

Skip the dose because meal is skipped

b)

Take half the dose with water only

c)

Take full dose to prevent hyperglycemia

d)

Delay the dose until next morning

17.

Compared with sulfonylureas, meglitinides most accurately have which hypoglycemia risk?

a)

No risk due to short half-life

b)

Equal risk independent of meals

c)

Lower risk when dosed with meals

d)

Higher risk regardless of meals

18.

Which patient profile most benefits from meglitinides?

a)

Fasting regimens avoiding daytime calories

b)

Irregular meal schedules needing dosing flexibility

c)

Severe renal failure requiring insulin only

d)

Consistent three-meal routines without snacks

19.

Despite dosing flexibility, a known drawback of meglitinides is which effect?

a)

Anorexia limits further weight gain

b)

Neutral weight with long-term use

c)

Significant weight loss occurs

d)

Weight gain can still occur

20.

Which counseling point prevents hypoglycemia with repaglinide?

a)

Double next dose after a skip

b)

No meal equals no dose

c)

Take on empty stomach nightly

d)

Crush tablets if nauseated

21.

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) like pioglitazone primarily improve glycemia by which action?

a)

Blocking renal glucose reabsorption in tubules

b)

Increasing insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat

c)

Inhibiting intestinal carbohydrate absorption

d)

Stimulating pancreatic beta-cell insulin release

22.

Which adverse effect requires routine monitoring in patients on TZDs?

a)

Edema and progressive weight gain

b)

Rebound tachycardia and tremor

c)

Photosensitivity and pruritic rash

d)

Hypokalemia and muscle cramps

23.

In which clinical scenario are TZDs contraindicated or should be avoided?

a)

Mild gastroesophageal reflux disease

b)

Symptomatic heart failure with edema

c)

Controlled hypothyroidism on levothyroxine

d)

Seasonal allergic rhinitis on antihistamines

24.

Which property limits TZDs for acute glucose control in hospitalized patients?

a)

Short duration of action

b)

Requirement for fasting state

c)

Slow onset of action

d)

Severe hypoglycemia risk

25.

A patient with type 2 diabetes and worsening dyspnea, leg swelling, and rapid weight gain recently started pioglitazone. What is the most plausible explanation?

a)

Allergic bronchospasm unrelated to volume status

b)

Drug-induced fluid retention exacerbating heart failure

c)

Idiosyncratic hepatic necrosis causing volume loss

d)

Osmotic diuresis leading to dehydration

26.

Which paired counseling statements correctly match drug class and key point?

a)

Meglitinides: long-acting; TZDs: no weight effects

b)

Meglitinides: dose with meals; TZDs: avoid in HF

c)

Meglitinides: take fasting; TZDs: treat acute spikes

d)

Meglitinides: cause fat loss; TZDs: reduce edema

27.

Which class increases insulin secretion only when glucose is elevated, reducing hypoglycemia risk?

a)

GLP-1 receptor agonists are glucose dependent

b)

Thiazolidinediones enhance insulin sensitivity only

c)

Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin regardless of glucose

d)

Basal insulin analogs provide constant background insulin

28.

A patient on sitagliptin develops severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. What complication is most likely?

a)

Biliary colic due to gallstones formation

b)

Acute pancreatitis associated with DPP-4 use

c)

Peptic ulcer perforation causing peritonitis

d)

Diabetic gastroparesis from autonomic neuropathy

29.

Which pairing should generally be avoided due to overlapping mechanisms?

a)

Basal insulin combined with GLP-1 receptor agonist

b)

GLP-1 receptor agonist combined with DPP-4 inhibitor

c)

Metformin combined with SGLT2 inhibitors routinely

d)

SGLT2 inhibitor combined with ACE inhibitor therapy

30.

GLP-1 receptor agonists commonly slow gastric emptying. Which counseling point best addresses this effect early in therapy?

a)

Drink minimal water with meals initially

b)

Skip breakfast to reduce nausea symptoms

c)

Start with small meals and eat slowly

d)

Increase fatty foods to prolong satiety

31.

Which benefit is characteristic of GLP-1 receptor agonists for overweight patients?

a)

Weight loss benefit with significant reductions

b)

Weight neutral with minimal body mass change

c)

Weight gain is frequent with long-term therapy

d)

Weight cycling with alternating gain and loss

32.

Which statement best describes the primary action of SGLT2 inhibitors?

a)

Increase insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

b)

Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis overnight

c)

Excrete excess glucose via the urine

d)

Slow intestinal glucose absorption postprandially

33.

Which adverse effect is most associated with SGLT2 inhibitors due to glucosuria?

a)

Retinopathy with macular edema

b)

Severe constipation and ileus

c)

Pancreatitis with elevated lipase

d)

Genital yeast infections and UTIs

34.

A patient on an SGLT2 inhibitor presents with nausea, abdominal pain, and Kussmaul respirations but near-normal glucose. What diagnosis fits best?

a)

Acute pancreatitis causing metabolic acidosis

b)

Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis likely

c)

Lactic acidosis from metformin toxicity

d)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state present

35.

Which hemodynamic concern should be monitored with SGLT2 therapy?

a)

Portal hypertension due to cirrhosis

b)

Hypertensive urgency from sodium retention

c)

Orthostatic hypotension from volume loss

d)

Pulmonary hypertension at rest

36.

What is a shared safety signal between DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists?

a)

Increased risk of pancreatitis symptoms

b)

Severe hypoglycemia during fasting states

c)

Scleroderma-like skin thickening syndrome

d)

Hyperkalemia requiring potassium binders

37.

Which medication list correctly matches its drug class?

a)

Dulaglutide and exenatide are DPP-4 inhibitors

b)

Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin are SGLT2 inhibitors

c)

Sitagliptin and linagliptin are GLP-1 agonists

d)

Semaglutide and liraglutide are SGLT2 inhibitors

38.

Which feature explains the lower hypoglycemia risk with GLP-1 receptor agonists?

a)

They block renal glucose reabsorption entirely

b)

They increase insulin only with elevated glucose

c)

They suppress cortisol during stress responses

d)

They directly release stored hepatic glycogen

39.

For a patient prone to dehydration, which counseling point is most important when starting an SGLT2 inhibitor?

a)

Use salt restriction to reduce thirst

b)

Increase caffeine to stimulate diuresis

c)

Maintain adequate hydration throughout day

d)

Limit fluids to avoid polyuria symptoms

40.

Which class is described as weight neutral among low hypoglycemia risk agents?

a)

Sulfonylureas such as glipizide

b)

DPP-4 inhibitors such as sitagliptin

c)

GLP-1 agonists such as liraglutide

d)

SGLT2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin

41.

Which clinical clue should prompt immediate evaluation for pancreatitis in patients on incretin-based therapy?

a)

Diffuse chest pain relieved by nitrates

b)

Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back

c)

Right lower quadrant pain with rebound

d)

Crampy lower abdominal pain with diarrhea

42.

Which statement about euglycemic DKA with SGLT2 inhibitors is accurate?

a)

It presents only with glucose above 500 mg/dL

b)

It causes metabolic alkalosis with hypoventilation

c)

It is prevented by taking bedtime insulin only

d)

It can occur with near-normal glucose levels

43.

Why should GLP-1 receptor agonists generally not be combined with DPP-4 inhibitors?

a)

They cause immediate insulin deficiency

b)

They eliminate weight loss advantages

c)

They duplicate incretin pathway mechanisms

d)

They counteract each other’s renal effects

44.

Which practical teaching is most appropriate when initiating GLP-1 therapy to mitigate GI side effects?

a)

Stop all fiber to reduce fullness sensation

b)

Use anticholinergics to speed gastric emptying

c)

Advance doses gradually as tolerated

d)

Eat large high-fat meals at bedtime

45.

Which statement best describes acarbose’s mechanism of action at mealtimes?

a)

Enhances renal glucose excretion rapidly

b)

Stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion

c)

Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis strongly

d)

Delays carbohydrate absorption in the gut

46.

A common adverse effect profile for acarbose includes which symptoms?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

Gas, bloating, and diarrhea

c)

Rash and photosensitivity

d)

Cough and bronchospasm

47.

When should acarbose be administered to maximize its effect?

a)

Only at bedtime daily

b)

Thirty minutes after meals

c)

Two hours before breakfast

d)

With the first bite of a meal

48.

A patient on acarbose develops hypoglycemia from another agent. The most appropriate treatment is to give:

a)

Intranasal glucagon spray

b)

High-fructose fruit juice

c)

Table sugar cubes promptly

d)

Oral glucose tablets immediately

49.

Why are table sugar and sucrose-containing snacks ineffective for hypoglycemia in patients taking acarbose?

a)

Acarbose raises gastric pH strongly

b)

Acarbose enhances insulin clearance

c)

Acarbose increases sucrose metabolism

d)

Acarbose blocks sucrose breakdown

50.

When used alone, acarbose carries what relative risk of hypoglycemia?

a)

Moderate risk with beta-cell exhaustion

b)

High risk due to potent insulin release

c)

Unpredictable risk from variable absorption

d)

Low risk because it doesn’t stimulate insulin

51.

Pramlintide is best characterized as which type of medication and usage?

a)

Amylin analog used with insulin

b)

GLP-1 agonist used alone

c)

SGLT2 inhibitor for fasting

d)

DPP-4 inhibitor as monotherapy

52.

Which physiologic effect is associated with pramlintide after meals?

a)

Decreases inappropriate glucagon secretion

b)

Accelerates gastric emptying substantially

c)

Stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis strongly

d)

Increases intestinal glucose absorption

53.

A key safety consideration when initiating pramlintide with mealtime insulin is to:

a)

Add high-dose basal insulin immediately

b)

Avoid all carbohydrate intake entirely

c)

Stop checking postprandial glucose levels

d)

Monitor for increased hypoglycemia risk

54.

Which statement about pramlintide’s role in therapy is correct?

a)

It is used only for fasting hyperglycemia

b)

It is an adjunct to mealtime insulin therapy

c)

It is preferred monotherapy in type 2 diabetes

d)

It replaces prandial insulin in many patients

55.

Which hormone is released when blood sugar gets too high?

a)

glucose

b)

glucagon

c)

glycogen

d)

insulin

56.

Insulin is produced by the _________ in the ____________.

a)

alpha cells, pancreas

b)

beta cells, pancreas

c)

alpha cells, liver

d)

beta cells, liver

57.

Insulin moves blood glucose primarily into _____________ cells to be used as energy.

a)

islet (of Langerhans)

b)

fat

c)

muscle

d)

liver

58.

Insulin signals _________ cells to store glucose as glycogen.

a)

islet (of Langerhans)

b)

fat

c)

muscle

d)

liver

59.

Mixed insulins such as Humulin 70/30 contain which of the following ingredients?

a)

70% insulin, 30% protamine

b)

70% NPH, 30% regular

c)

70% regular, 30% NPH

d)

70% protamine, 30% insulin

60.

According to the ADA guidelines, in patients with T2DM, a GLP1 receptor agonist is preferred over insulin.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

61.

[SELECT ALL THAT APPLY] Which of the following approved agents does the ADA guidelines recommend for treatment of youth-onset T2DM?

a)

liraglutide

b)

semaglutide

c)

insulin

d)

glipizide

e)

metformin