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Applied Nutrition Exam 1: Carbs, Protein, Fats, Obesity, Hormone

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Individual scope of practice is comprised of which of the following

a)

State laws

b)

Education and credentials

c)

Federal regulations

d)


Organization policies and procedures

e)

All of the above

2.

Clinical nutrition is highly individualized

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which of the following are components of the nutrition care process?

a)

Nutrition assessment

b)

Nutrition diagnosis

c)


Nutrition Intervention

d)

Nutrition monitoring and evaluation

e)

All of these

4.

Providing general nutrition education is within the scope of practice of a variety of healthcare practitioners.

a)

true

b)

false

5.

Which of the following are examples of micronutrients?

a)

Trace minerals

b)

Major minerals

c)

Fat-soluble vitamins

d)

Water-soluble vitamins

e)

all of these

6.

A kilocalorie is equal to 1000 calories

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The micronutrients contain kcalories.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The acceptable macronutrient distribution ranges (AMDR) provide general guidance about appropriate macronutrient intake amounts, while the dietary reference intakes provide general guidance about appropriate micronutrient intake amounts.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

True or false: the energy density of carbohydrates is 4 kcalories per gram.

a)
False
b)
True
10.

True or false: fruit is a good source of carbohydrate

a)
false
b)
true
11.

Glucose is a polysaccharide.

a)
False
b)
True
12.

Natural sweeteners such as honey are low in dietary fructose.

a)
False
b)

True

13.

Refined grains contain fewer micronutrients than whole grains.

a)
True
b)

False

14.

Based on where we find dietary fiber, why might the average consumption of dietary fiber be much lower than the recommended intake amount?

a)
Most people eat too many processed foods.
b)
Many people consume insufficient fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
c)
Fiber is primarily found in dairy products.
d)
The average person consumes enough nuts and seeds.
15.

Starch and glycogen are both polysaccharides

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The pancreas releases a digestive enzyme which participates in carbohydrate metabolism

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Where in the gastrointestinal tract does the most carbohydrate digestion occur?

a)
Stomach
b)
Large intestine
c)
Small intestine
d)
Esophagus
18.

Humans have the digestive enzymes to digest dietary fiber.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The goal of carbohydrate consumption is to eventually break them down to utilize as an energy source.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Insulin is a hormone involved in carbohydrate metabolism.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What is the name of a diagnostic test that measures the amount of glucose in one’s plasma while in a fasted state?

a)
Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) test
b)
Hemoglobin A1c test
c)
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
d)
Random Plasma Glucose (RPG) test
22.

Individuals with diabetes should completely avoid eating carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which food below is not a protein-containing food?

a)

Olive oil

b)

Eggs

c)

Meat

d)

Dairy products

24.

Which of these are examples of a role that protein plays in the body

a)
Transporting oxygen in the blood
b)
Storing vitamins and minerals
c)

Making up the non skeletal structures of the body

d)
Providing energy through carbohydrates
25.

Protein can be utilized as an energy source in the body.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Protein differs from the other macronutrients because it is _______

a)
it is the only macronutrient that is liquid
b)

it contains hydrogen

c)
it contains nitrogen
d)
it is a source of energy
27.

Which of the following amino acids can the human body make?

a)

Valine

b)


Lysine

c)


Tryptophan

d)


Tyrosine

28.

what are complementary proteins?

a)
Complementary proteins are combinations of different protein sources that together provide all essential amino acids.
b)
Single protein sources that provide all amino acids.
c)
Proteins that are only found in animal sources.
d)
Proteins that are not needed in a balanced diet.
29.

When three amino acids are linked together via peptide bonds, this is considered a.... 

a)
tripeptide
b)
dipeptide
c)
polypeptide
d)
tetrapeptide
30.

The process of protein denaturation changes a protein chemically and functionally 

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Protein denaturation is a key step in protein digestion.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

List the name of the substance in the stomach which converts pepsinogen into pepsin.

4 lines
33.

How many kcalories are in one gram of fat?

a)
5 kcal
b)

4 kcal

c)
9 kcal
d)
11 kcal
34.

The term "hydrophilic" is used to describe a substance that does NOT mix well with or dissolve in water.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The body stores excess kcalories in the form of... 

a)

Sterols

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Triglycerides

36.

Phospholipids and triglycerides contain the same number of fatty acids.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

The hydrophilic phosphate groups that easily associate with water are found on the outside of the phospholipid bilayer, while the hydrophobic fatty acids are on the inside of the phospholipid bilayer. 

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Cholesterol is found in both plant and animal-derived foods.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Emulsification is the essential process that allows fat-a hydrophobic macronutrient- to be immersed in the aqueous environment of the gastrointestinal tract. 

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and sterols.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the name of the digestive enzyme that breaks down lipids and is released in the mouth?

4 lines
42.

When is cholecystokinin (CCK) released?

a)

When you are hungry

b)

When you need more energy

c)


When fat enters the small intestine

d)


At the same time sublingual lipase is released

43.

Bile is…

a)

A chemical emulsifier

b)


A mechanical emulsifier 

44.

When phospholipids are digested, they have to be broken down into 2 fatty acids, a glycerol molecule and a phosphate fragment before they can be absorbed across the intestinal membrane.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

How many carbons are in a short-chain fatty acid?

a)

25 +

b)


12 - 24

c)

6 - 10

d)

< 6

46.

When a fatty acid contains zero double bonds between adjacent carbon atoms along the carbon chain, this is referred to as a _____________ fatty acid.

a)


Saturated

b)

Monounsaturated 

c)

Polyunsaturated 

47.

When determining the Omega number for a fatty acid, the the number of carbons are counted until the double bond is reached, starting from the carboxylic acid end.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Hydrogenation results in the production of trans fatty acids 

a)

True

b)

False

49.

High blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, osteoarthritis, mental health problems and stroke are just some of the health risks associated with overweight and obesity.

a)

True

b)

FAlse

50.

Please discuss at least one important consideration for a healthcare professional when working with an individual with obesity.

4 lines
51.

The only contributors to obesity are lifestyle choices.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following fat types are storage forms of fat?

a)

Visceral

b)


Android

c)


Appendicular

d)

All the above

53.

Which fat distribution type(s) are associated with the highest risk of cardiovascular disease?

a)
Gynoid fat distribution
b)
Abdominal obesity and android fat distribution
c)
Muscle mass distribution
d)
Peripheral obesity
54.

Densitometry, imaging and field tests are all tools that can be used to determine body composition.

a)

TRue

b)

False

55.

Multidisciplinary interventions are both the most effective and most sustainable interventions to promote weight loss. 

a)
False
b)
True
56.

The goal of weight loss in the setting of obesity is promoting the loss of high amounts of lean body mass and low amounts of fat tissue. 

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which 2 hormones does the pancreas secrete?

a)
Cortisol, Adrenaline
b)
Insulin, Glucagon
c)
Estrogen, Testosterone
d)
Thyroxine, Melatonin
58.

Which hormone is more active in the fed state?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

59.

CCK release promotes the release of bile from the gallbladder.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Ghrelin is more active in the fed state than in the fasting state. 

a)

True

b)

False