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RAD 255 Ch. 37 - Fluoroscopy & Digital Fluoroscopy

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fluoroscopy differs from radiography primarily because it:

a)

Uses higher kVp

b)

Produces continuous images

c)

Uses film

d)

Eliminates scatter

2.

Conventional fluoroscopy typically operates at:

a)

High mA, short exposure time

b)

Low mA, long exposure time

c)

High mA, long exposure time

d)

Pulsed exposure only

3.

Image Intensifier Components: The photocathode emits electrons in proportion to:

a)

Tube current

b)

Incident light intensity

c)

Patient thickness

d)

kVp

4.

Image Intensifier Components: The output phosphor is typically made of:

a)

Cesium iodide

b)

Zinc cadmium sulfide

c)

Calcium tungstate

d)

Selenium

5.

Image Intensifier Components: Minification gain results from:

a)

Reduced electron speed

b)

Concentration of electrons onto a smaller output phosphor

c)

Increased exposure time

d)

Increased kVp

6.

Brightness Gain: Brightness gain is defined as:

a)

Minification gain × flux gain

b)

Flux gain ÷ minification gain

c)

Output brightness ÷ input brightness

d)

Input brightness ÷ output brightness

7.

Brightness Gain: Increasing image intensifier input diameter will:

a)

Increase brightness

b)

Increase resolution

c)

Decrease minification gain

d)

Decrease patient dose

8.

Automatic Brightness Control (ABC): ABC primarily adjusts:

a)

kVp only

b)

mA only

c)

kVp and/or mA

d)

Exposure time

9.

Automatic Brightness Control (ABC): When patient thickness increases, ABC will typically:

a)

Reduce mA

b)

Reduce kVp

c)

Increase exposure factors

d)

Shut off the beam

10.

Digital Fluoroscopy: Digital fluoroscopy differs from conventional fluoroscopy because it:

a)

Uses film

b)

Uses digital detectors

c)

Eliminates scatter

d)

Uses higher mA

11.

Digital Fluoroscopy: Flat-panel detectors typically use:

a)

Cesium iodide and TFTs

b)

Calcium tungstate

c)

Film emulsion

d)

Rare-earth screens

12.

Pulsed Fluoroscopy: A pulse rate of 7.5 pulses/sec compared to 30 pulses/sec will:

a)

Increase dose

b)

Decrease dose

c)

Not affect dose

d)

Increase brightness

13.

Pulsed Fluoroscopy: Lower pulse rates generally result in:

a)

Increased motion blur

b)

Increased spatial resolution

c)

Increased contrast

d)

Increased kVp

14.

Last Image Hold (LIH): Last image hold:

a)

Continues x-ray exposure

b)

Stores the final fluoroscopic image

c)

Increases patient dose

d)

Improves contrast resolution

15.

Dose & Exposure Rate: Federal regulations limit standard fluoroscopic exposure rate to:

a)

2.5 R/min

b)

5 R/min

c)

10 R/min

d)

20 R/min

16.

High-level control fluoroscopy allows exposure rates up to:

a)

5 R/min

b)

10 R/min

c)

20 R/min

d)

50 R/min

17.

Math & Formula-Based Questions: Exposure rate is calculated as:

a)

Dose ÷ time

b)

Time ÷ dose

c)

kVp × mA

d)

SID² ÷ mA

18.

Math & Formula-Based Questions: If a fluoroscopic exposure is 3 R over 6 minutes, exposure rate equals:

a)

0.25 R/min

b)

0.5 R/min

c)

1 R/min

d)

2 R/min

19.

Math & Formula-Based Questions: If exposure rate doubles, patient dose will:

a)

Decrease

b)

Remain constant

c)

Double

d)

Be eliminated

20.

Math & Formula-Based Questions: Doubling fluoroscopy time while keeping exposure rate constant will:

a)

Halve dose

b)

Double dose

c)

Eliminate dose

d)

Reduce brightness

21.

Magnification Mode: Magnification mode reduces:

a)

Input phosphor size

b)

Output phosphor size

c)

kVp

d)

mA

22.

Magnification Mode: Reduced minification gain causes ABC to:

a)

Reduce exposure

b)

Increase exposure

c)

Turn off beam

d)

Reduce SID

23.

Spatial & Contrast Resolution: Digital fluoroscopy improves contrast resolution through:

a)

Film processing

b)

Image averaging

c)

Increased SID

d)

Reduced filtration

24.

Spatial & Contrast Resolution: Increasing kVp will generally:

a)

Increase contrast

b)

Decrease contrast

c)

Not affect contrast

d)

Eliminate scatter

25.

Scatter & Grids: Fluoroscopy grids are used to:

a)

Increase dose

b)

Reduce scatter

c)

Increase brightness

26.

Removing the grid will:

a)

Increase patient dose

b)

Decrease patient dose

c)

Increase scatter absorption

d)

Increase contrast

27.

Temporal resolution refers to:

a)

Image sharpness

b)

Motion visualization

c)

Contrast resolution

d)

Spatial resolution

28.

Higher frame rates improve:

a)

Spatial resolution

b)

Contrast resolution

c)

Temporal resolution

d)

Noise

29.

Reducing frame rate will:

a)

Increase dose

b)

Reduce dose

c)

Increase blur reduction

d)

Increase brightness

30.

Using last image hold instead of continuous fluoro will:

a)

Increase dose

b)

Reduce dose

c)

Increase scatter

d)

Increase blur

31.

Increasing filtration will:

a)

Increase skin dose

b)

Reduce patient dose

c)

Reduce beam energy

d)

Increase mA

32.

Exposure rate depends most on:

a)

Time

b)

kVp and mA

c)

SID only

d)

Image matrix

33.

Dose rate is commonly measured at:

a)

Tabletop

b)

Image receptor

c)

Patient entrance skin

d)

Control panel

34.

Digital subtraction fluoroscopy is best for:

a)

Bone imaging

b)

Vascular studies

c)

GI imaging

d)

Chest imaging

35.

Under-table tube design:

a)

Increases operator exposure

b)

Reduces operator exposure

c)

Eliminates scatter

d)

Increases magnification

36.

Higher kVp fluoroscopy generally results in:

a)

Higher contrast

b)

Lower contrast

c)

Increased noise

d)

Reduced penetration

37.

The most radiosensitive tissue during fluoro is:

a)

Bone

b)

Skin

c)

Muscle

d)

Fat

38.

ABC failure could result in:

a)

Underexposure only

b)

Overexposure only

c)

Excessive patient dose

d)

No image

39.

Digital fluoroscopy allows post-processing to:

a)

Reduce patient dose after exposure

b)

Adjust contrast and brightness

c)

Eliminate noise completely

d)

Increase spatial resolution beyond detector limits

40.

Digital fluoroscopy image quality depends on:

a)

Film processing

b)

Detector efficiency

c)

Developer temperature

d)

Screen speed

41.

Proper collimation improves:

a)

Dose and contrast

b)

Dose only

c)

Contrast only

d)

Resolution only

42.

Reducing fluoroscopy time by 25%25\% will:

a)

Increase dose

b)

Reduce dose by 25%25\%

c)

Reduce dose by 50%50\%

d)

Not affect dose

43.

Brightness gain decreases when:

a)

Input phosphor size decreases

b)

Output phosphor size decreases

c)

kVp increases

d)

mA increases

44.

Flat-panel detectors improve fluoroscopy by:

a)

Increasing distortion

b)

Eliminating ABC

c)

Improving image uniformity

d)

Increasing patient dose

45.

The single most effective dose-reduction strategy in fluoroscopy is:

a)

Increasing kVp

b)

Using magnification

c)

Minimizing beam-on time

d)

Increasing mA

46.

Using the relationship TBG=Minification Gain×Flux Gain\text{TBG} = \text{Minification Gain} \times \text{Flux Gain} , a fluoroscopic system has a flux gain of 6060 and a minification gain of 120120 . What is the total brightness gain?

a)

180180

b)

7,2007{,}200

c)

2,0002{,}000

d)

6060

47.

Using the relationship TBG=Minification Gain×Flux Gain\text{TBG} = \text{Minification Gain} \times \text{Flux Gain} , a system has a minification gain of 150150 and a total brightness gain of 9,0009{,}000 . What is the flux gain?

a)

6060

b)

1515

c)

99

d)

1,3501{,}350

48.

If flux gain doubles while minification gain remains constant, total brightness gain will:

a)

Stay the same

b)

Be cut in half

c)

Double

d)

Increase fourfold

49.

An image intensifier has an input diameter of 40 cm and an output diameter of 4 cm. Minification gain equals:

a)

100

b)

10

c)

1,000

d)

1,600

50.

If the input phosphor is reduced from 30 cm to 15 cm (output unchanged), minification gain will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Double

51.

What happens to minification gain when the output phosphor size increases?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Doubles

d)

Is unaffected

52.

Which configuration produces the greatest minification gain?

a)

Small input phosphor, large output phosphor

b)

Large input phosphor, large output phosphor

c)

Large input phosphor, small output phosphor

d)

Equal input and output phosphor sizes

53.

Flux gain is primarily produced by:

a)

Reduced SID

b)

Electron acceleration

c)

Minification

d)

Increased mA

54.

If flux gain increases from 40 to 80, total brightness gain will:

a)

Be halved

b)

Double

c)

Stay the same

d)

Increase fourfold

55.

Increasing the voltage applied to the image intensifier will cause flux gain to:

a)

Decrease

b)

Stay the same

c)

Increase

d)

Drop to zero

56.

Which factor most directly controls flux gain?

a)

Input phosphor diameter

b)

Output phosphor diameter

c)

Electron acceleration potential

d)

SID

57.

Typical fluoroscopic flux gain values range from approximately:

a)

1–5

b)

5–10

c)

10–20

d)

25–50

58.

Flux gain mainly compensates for reduced image brightness caused by:

a)

Lower spatial resolution

b)

Reduced x-ray intensity

c)

Increased distortion

d)

Increased magnification

59.

Increasing object-to-image distance (OID) will cause magnification to:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Eliminate blur

60.

Minification gain is 100 and flux gain is 40. What is total brightness gain?

a)

4,000

b)

140

c)

60

d)

2,500

61.

If total brightness gain is 6,000 and minification gain is 120, flux gain equals:

a)

72

b)

50

c)

5,000

d)

600

62.

If minification gain doubles while flux gain remains constant, total brightness gain will:

a)

Be halved

b)

Double

c)

Quadruple

d)

Stay the same

63.

Which formula is correct?

a)

TBG = MG + FG

b)

MG = FG ÷ TBG

c)

TBG = MG × FG

d)

FG = MG × SID