wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NSG1211 Content Review 1

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a child who is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as contraindicated for the child?

a)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)

b)

Gentamicin sulfate

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Amphotericin B

2.

A nurse in a community clinic is collecting data from a client who is withdrawing from heavy cocaine use. When collecting data from the client, which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?

a)

Lack of feeling or emotion

b)

Seizures

c)

Abdominal cramps

d)

Hyperthermia

3.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and receiving fentanyl via patient controlled analgesia. The client has a prescription for naloxone. The nurse understands that the purpose of naloxone is which of the following?

a)

To suppress respiratory secretions

b)

Block the effects of opioids on the central nervous system

c)

To treat nausea

d)

To treat urinary retention

4.

A nurse is collecting data from a client admitted to an inpatient mental health unit and has a new prescription for disulfiram (Antabuse). Which of the following information is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?

a)

History of liver disease

b)

History of kidney disease

c)

When the client last drank alcohol

d)

If the client has taken disulfiram before

5.

A nurse is caring for a client who begins showing signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

a)

Methadone

b)

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

c)

Lorazepam (Ativan)

d)

Acamprosate (Campral)

6.

What is the primary difference between the generic and brand name of a drug?

a)

Generic names are assigned by the FDA, while brand names are given by the manufacturer.

b)

Generic names are more expensive than brand names.

c)

Brand names contain only active ingredients.

d)

Generic names reflect the chemical composition of the drug.

7.

What information is typically missing if a prescription reads 'Alice Sample, Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for pain'?

a)

Time the prescription was written

b)

Client's full name

c)

Generic name of the medication

8.

Which component of a prescription ensures the right medication is given to the client?

a)

Verification of medication name with the order

b)

Checking the provider’s signature

c)

Reviewing the route of administration

d)

Ensuring the client’s name is on the prescription

9.

Which type of drug interaction occurs when multiple medications may intensify or decrease effects of one another?

a)

Drug-drug interaction

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Drug-food interaction

d)

Adverse drug reaction (ADR)

10.

Which of the following substances is classified under Schedule I, indicating no accepted medical use and high potential for abuse?

a)

Heroin

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Diazepam

d)

Codeine

11.

Which substance is classified under Schedule II due to its high potential for abuse and severe psychological or physical dependence?

a)

Amphetamine

b)

Ketamine

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Codeine

12.

Which of the following medications is classified under Schedule IV, indicating a lower potential for abuse?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Methamphetamine

c)

Anabolic steroids

d)

Heroin

13.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Schedule III substances?

a)

Moderate to low physical dependence

b)

No accepted medical use

c)

Severe psychological dependence

d)

Consist of preparations with limited quantities of certain narcotics

14.

What is the primary characteristic of Schedule V substances?

a)

Low potential for abuse

b)

High potential for severe physical dependence

c)

No accepted medical use

d)

Moderate to high psychological dependence

15.

A nurse is collecting data for a client who has been receiving parenteral morphine 10 mg every 4 hr for the past week due to a serious traumatic injury to the pelvis and lower extremities. The client is awake and alert but states that the morphine no longer seems to be relieving her severe pain. Which of the following phenomena should the nurse suspect?

a)

Tolerance

b)

Addiction

c)

Withdrawal

d)

Hypersensitivity

16.

A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about routes of medication administration. The nurse should include that which of the following routes has the fastest rate of absorption?

a)

Enteral

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intravenous

d)

Topical

17.

A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about pharmacodynamics. The nurse should include that which of the following medication levels occurs when a medication is at the lowest serum concentration?

a)

Toxic

b)

Trough

c)

Half-life

d)

Peak

18.

A nurse is assisting with providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an antibiotic. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a)

Check with your provider before taking over-the-counter medications.

b)

Antibiotics are administered to treat viral infections.

c)

Bloody stools are expected while taking antibiotics.

d)

Discontinue the medication when you feel better.

19.

A nurse is caring for a client who comes to the clinic to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family contact tests positive. Which of the following measures should the nurse anticipate preparing for this client?

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

Sputum culture for acid fast bacillus (AFB)

c)

Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine

d)

Chest x-ray

20.

A nurse is caring for a client who is suspected to have active laryngeal tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to safely care for this client?

a)

Have staff and visitors wear gowns while in the client's room.

b)

Place the client in a private room with a special ventilation system.

c)

Move the client to a semi-private room with a client who requires droplet precautions.

d)

Remove personal protective equipment in the hallway outside of the client's room.

21.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take to manage controlled substances at the beginning of the shift?

a)

Set aside any controlled substances the nurse plans to give during her shift.

b)

Verify that the amounts of each medication she counts match the amounts on the inventory record.

c)

Co-sign any notations of wasting controlled substances on the previous shift.

d)

Discard any partial doses she finds in the cabinet in the sharps container.

22.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and is to start taking rifampin. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

a)

Purified protein derivative skin test results will improve in 3 months.

b)

Expect to have insomnia while taking this medication.

c)

Take the medication with meals.

d)

Urine and other secretions will turn orange.

23.

A nurse is collecting data on a client who has a prescription for morphine. The nurse should recognize that which of the following data is a priority to obtain before administering this medication?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Apical heart rate

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Temperature

24.

A nurse is caring for a client who tells him he does not want to take his morning medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Tell the client that the physician wants the client to take the medicine.

b)

Wait 30 min to try administering the medication to the client again.

c)

Complete an incident report.

d)

Document the client's refusal of the medication.

25.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who just returned to the unit following surgery and notes the client has a history of anaphylaxis in response to penicillin. The client's postoperative prescriptions include a dose of cephalexin, a penicillin derivative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Administer the medication.

b)

Request that the surgeon prescribe a different antibiotic.

c)

Ask the provider to prescribe diphenhydramine as a precaution.

d)

Confirm with the client that the reaction he had was truly anaphylaxis.

26.

A nurse is caring for a client who received an injection of penicillin G procaine and begins to experience an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a)

Obtain intravenous fluids for administration.

b)

Give diphenhydramine intramuscularly.

c)

Deliver a dose of albuterol by inhalation.

d)

Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.

27.

A nurse is caring for a client who has chlamydia and a new prescription for azithromycin. Which of the following information should the nurse include when reinforcing teaching about this medication?

a)

Notify your provider if you experience a sore throat or fever while taking this medication.

b)

Urine that is dark yellow or orange is an expected adverse effect of this medication.

c)

Take the medication with an antacid to decrease stomach upset.

d)

You might experience bleeding gums while taking this medication.

28.

A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client newly prescribed amoxicillin‑clavulanate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

I will take this medication until my sore throat goes away.

b)

I can take this medication with food.

c)

I need to stop taking this medicine if my tongue turns a dark color.

d)

I should not take acetaminophen when taking this medication.

29.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about treatment of methicillin‑resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Antibiotics are prescribed only when a viral infection is present.

b)

Broad‑spectrum antibiotics are used whenever possible.

c)

Antibiotic dosages below the minimum concentration are prescribed.

d)

Infections become resistant to high doses of antibiotics.

30.

A nurse is caring for a client who routinely drinks alcohol. Which of the following information should the nurse provide the client about alcohol consumption?

a)

Alcohol is metabolized in the kidneys.

b)

Alcohol is metabolized at an average rate of 30 milliliters per hour.

c)

Medication is metabolized faster when alcohol is consumed regularly.

d)

An average can of beer and 8 ounces of wine contain the same amount of alcohol.

31.

Which route of drug administration typically has the fastest absorption rate?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Oral

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Topical

32.

Which drug classification requires a prescription and is regulated under the Controlled Substances Act?

a)

Schedule II drugs

b)

Over‑the‑counter drugs

c)

Dietary supplements

d)

Herbal remedies

33.

What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

34.

Which of the following is an example of an idiosyncratic drug reaction?

a)

Unexpected severe skin rash from a commonly used drug

b)

Nausea experienced after taking antibiotics

c)

Drowsiness from antihistamines

d)

Increased heart rate from beta blockers

35.

Which term describes the interaction when two drugs produce a combined effect greater than their individual effects?

a)

Synergistic effect

b)

Antagonistic effect

c)

Additive effect

d)

Displacement

36.

Which method of drug classification focuses on the effect of drugs on body systems?

a)

Therapeutic classification

b)

Pharmacologic classification

c)

Chemical classification

d)

Legal classification

37.

What is the primary difference between prescription drugs and nonprescription drugs?

a)

Prescription drugs require a healthcare provider's approval

b)

Prescription drugs have higher potency

c)

Nonprescription drugs are safer

d)

Nonprescription drugs are less effective

38.

Which classification schedule under the Controlled Substances Act has no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

39.

Which drug administration route is the most rapid for absorption?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Oral

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Transdermal

40.

Which term describes an unexpected reaction to a drug that is not related to its pharmacologic action?

a)

Idiosyncratic reaction

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Synergistic effect

41.

What process must a new drug undergo before it can be marketed to the public?

a)

Clinical trials

b)

Peer review

c)

Patent application

d)

Market research

42.

What effect occurs when two drugs with similar pharmacologic actions are administered together?

a)

Additive effect

b)

Synergistic effect

c)

Antagonistic effect

d)

Displacement

43.

Which term describes the effect when a drug is metabolized and loses concentration before reaching systemic circulation?

a)

First-pass effect

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Excretion

d)

Absorption

44.

Which of the following is an example of a safety need in Maslow's hierarchy that nurses should address?

a)

Ensuring the patient has adequate nutrition

b)

Providing a secure and stable environment

c)

Facilitating social interactions among patients

d)

Encouraging personal growth and achievement

45.

Which nursing intervention primarily addresses the esteem needs in Maslow's hierarchy?

a)

Offering pain relief medication

b)

Encouraging independence in daily activities

c)

Providing a safe environment

d)

Facilitating family visits

46.

How does Maslow's hierarchy of needs influence the nursing process in substance use disorder treatment?

a)

It suggests starting with self-actualization strategies to enhance recovery.

b)

It prioritizes addressing physiological needs like withdrawal symptoms first.

c)

It focuses on emotional needs before physical needs.

d)

It emphasizes the importance of social services in recovery.

47.

Which patient need should be prioritized first according to Maslow's hierarchy when treating substance withdrawal?

a)

Self-esteem needs

b)

Physiological needs

c)

Love and belonging needs

48.

Which nursing action addresses the love and belonging needs of a patient recovering from substance use disorder according to Maslow's hierarchy?

a)

Providing medication for withdrawal symptoms

b)

Facilitating family visits and social support groups

c)

Ensuring a safe physical environment

d)

Encouraging personal development activities

49.

Which of the following substances is classified under Schedule I according to the Controlled Substances Act?

a)

Heroin

b)

Amphetamine

c)

Codeine

d)

Ketamine

50.

What is the primary characteristic of substances classified under Schedule II?

a)

Low potential for abuse

b)

High potential for abuse and severe dependence

c)

No accepted medical use

d)

Consists of preparations with limited quantities of narcotics

51.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Schedule IV substances?

a)

High potential for abuse

b)

Lower potential for abuse and accepted medical use

c)

No medical use and high potential for abuse

d)

Moderate potential for abuse and accepted medical use

52.

Which substance is classified under Schedule III?

a)

Buprenorphine

b)

Diazepam

c)

Methamphetamine

d)

Heroin

53.

Which route of medication administration involves applying medication directly to the skin or mucous membranes for local or systemic effects?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Topical

d)

Subcutaneous

54.

Which are common symptoms experienced during withdrawal from controlled substances? (Select all that apply)

a)

Intense cravings

b)

Anxiety

c)

Depression

d)

Nausea and vomiting

e)

Hallucinations

55.

Which serious adverse effect should be monitored when a client is administered a new antibiotic?

a)

C. diff infection

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Nonproductive cough

56.

What is the primary reason for avoiding the premature discontinuation of prescribed antibiotics?

a)

Avoiding antibiotic resistance

b)

Preventing nausea

c)

Reducing the risk of yeast infection

d)

Decreasing hospital stay duration

57.

Which phase of the LADME process involves the medication entering the bloodstream after administration?

a)

Liberation

b)

Absorption

c)

Distribution

d)

Metabolism

58.

Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism phase in the LADME process?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Stomach

59.

Which of the following is the correct conversion from milligrams to grams?

a)

1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg

b)

100 mg is equal to 1 g

c)

10,000mg to 1 g

60.

How many milliliters are in 3 tablespoons?

a)

45 mL

b)

30 mL

c)

60 mL

61.

What does the abbreviation 'BP' commonly stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Body Pulse

c)

Brain Perfusion

62.

What does NKDA stand for?

a)

No Known Drug Allergies

b)

No Known Dietary Allergies