wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PS4 / IPA4 - Quiz 1 and 2

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Quiz 1 - This antidiabetic medication, along with others in its class, carries a risk of yeast or urinary tract infections, due to increased glucose excretion in the urinary tract

a)
Canagliflozin
b)
Insulin aspart
c)
Glimepiride
d)
Repaglinide
2.
Quiz 1 - Invokana and others in this class carry this risk, particularly in geriatric patients:
a)

Volume depletion (mild diuretic)

b)

Hypertension (mild stimulant)

c)

Hypoglycemia (releases insulin)

d)

Confusion (mild anticholinergic effects)

3.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the important things to monitor in patients receiving SGLT2 inhibitors from the list below:
a)
HbA1c (for efficacy)
b)
Electrolytes or fluid status (for safety)
c)
Renal function (for safety)
d)
LDL (for efficacy)
4.
Quiz 1 - What is a concerning side effect of Farxiga?
a)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
b)
Medullary thyroid cancer
c)
Lactic acidosis
d)
Weight gain
5.

Quiz 1 - Select all of the DPP-4 inhibitors from the list below

a)

Januvia

b)

Tradjenta

c)

Onglyza

d)

Victoza

6.

Quiz 2 - Which of the following can potentiate hypoglycemia when combined with dulaglutide?

a)
Insulin lispro
b)
Glipizide
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Metformin
7.

Quiz 2 - Select all of the CORRECT statements regarding Byetta from below.

a)

May help with weight loss.

b)

May lead to GI upset (N/V, diarrhea).

c)

Pancreatitis is a rare side effect.

d)

Should be given within 1 hour of a meal.

e)

May be cardiotoxic (avoid in CV disease).

8.
Quiz 1 - Select the correct statements regarding glimepiride
a)
Caution in geriatric patients
b)
Sulfonylurea
c)
May lead to weight gain
d)
Given PO and IV
e)
Can cause hypoglycemia
9.

Quiz 1 - Select all correct statements from below regarding Glucotrol.

a)

Avoid alcohol due to the risk of hypoglycemia.

b)

Self-monitor glucose while on this medication.

c)

It can cause diarrhea, but food can help reduce the symptoms.

d)

Eat regularly scheduled meals to avoid hypoglycemia.

10.

Quiz 2 - Select all the GLP-1 agonists from the list below

a)

Trulicity

b)

Bydureon

c)

Byetta

d)

Victoza

e)

Tradjenta

11.
Quiz 1 - When should insulin aspart be administered with regards to meals?
a)
~15 min prior to a meal
b)
30 min after a meal
c)
1 hour prior to a meal
d)
It can be given without regards to meals
12.
Quiz 1 - Which of the following has the shortest duration of action?
a)
Insulin aspart
b)
Insulin regular
c)
Insulin NPH
d)
Insulin glargine
e)
Insulin detemir
13.

Quiz 1 - Select the insulin that is considered 'long-acting'.

a)

Insulin glargine

b)

Insulin regular

c)

Insulin NPH

d)

Insulin lispro

e)

Insulin aspart

14.

Quiz 1 - When should Humalog be administered with regards to meals?

a)
~15 min prior to a meal
b)
30 min after a meal
c)
1 hour prior to a meal
d)
It can be given without regards to meals
15.
Quiz 1 - Which of the following is considered an intermediate action insulin product?
a)
Insulin aspart
b)
Insulin lispro
c)
Insulin NPH
d)
Insulin glargine
e)

Insulin regular

16.

Quiz 1 - Select all the correct counseling points regarding Humulin-R.

a)

When combining with Humulin-N, add this insulin first.

b)

Administer approximately 30 minutes prior to a meal.

c)

The solution should be cloudy.

d)

Shake well before use.

17.

Quiz 1 - Select all the important counseling points for insulin products from the options below:

a)

Rotate the injection site

b)

Use a new needle for each injection

c)

Less painful when cold

d)

Clean the area with alcohol prior to injecting

e)

Educate on the proper disposal of sharps

18.

Quiz 1 - Select the insulin which can be used for basal dosing

a)
Insulin regular
b)

Insulin lispro

c)
Insulin glargine
d)
Insulin NPH
e)
Insulin aspart
19.

Quiz 1 - Select all the insulins that can be used for bolus dosing.

a)

Humulin-N

b)

Novolin-R

c)

Novolog

d)

Humalog

e)

Humulin-R

20.
Quiz 2 - Which best describes Synthroid?
a)
Synthetic T4 which converts to T3 in the body
b)
Synthetic TSH which stimulates T4 release
c)
Recombinant T3 which acts directly on the receptor
d)
Iodide solution which promotes a euthyroid state
21.

Quiz 2 - Select all the formulations in which levothyroxine is available from the options below

a)

Oral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Rectal

d)

Topical

e)

Transdermal patch

22.
Quiz 2 - Which of the following adverse effects can be attributed to levothyroxine, particularly when taken in high doses?
a)
Rapid heart rate
b)
Weight gain
c)
Cold intolerance
d)
Hypoglycemia
23.

Quiz 2 - Select all the counseling points regarding over-the-counter (OTC) products that should be provided to patients starting Synthroid:

a)

May interact with certain multivitamin preparations, so they should be taken separately

b)

May interact with some antacids such as calcium carbonate, so they should be taken separately

c)

May interact with iron supplements, so they should be taken separately

d)

May interact with vitamin C, so it should be taken separately

e)

May interact with folic acid, so it should be taken separately

24.

Quiz 2 - Select all that are approved for BOTH diabetes management and weight loss?

a)

Liraglutide

b)

Tirzepatide

c)

Linagliptin

d)

Semaglutide

e)

Pioglitazone

25.
Quiz 1 - Which of the following is Glucophage's drug class?
a)
Meglitinide
b)
Biguanide
c)
Thiazolidinedione
d)
Sulfonylurea
26.

Quiz 1 - Which of the following should be held around the use of IV iodinated contrast (for a radiologic procedure) due to a risk for lactic acidosis and kidney injury?

a)
Metformin
b)
Glipizide
c)
Pioglitazone
d)
Canagliflozin
e)
Insulin aspart
27.
Quiz 1 - Which nutrient is potentially reduced due to metformin?
a)
Vitamin B12
b)
Vitamin K
c)
Vitamin C
d)
Vitamin D
28.
Quiz 1 - Which accurately describes the relationship between metformin and GI upset?
a)
Metformin can cause diarrhea (start of therapy) and taking with food can reduce risk
b)
Metformin is the least likely to cause GI upset of all antidiabetic medications
c)
Metformin commonly causes constipation so important to increase fiber intake
d)
Metformin commonly causes nausea and vomiting but taking with ginger can help
29.
Quiz 2 - This class of drugs, used in erectile dysfunction, can lead to transient dose-related blue tinted vision:
a)
PDE5 (phosphodiesterase-5) inhibitors
b)
5-alpha reducatase inhibitors
c)
Testosterone receptor agonists
d)
Aromatase inhibitors
30.

Quiz 2 - Select all the comorbidities that should be considered when initiating phentermine due to drug-disease interactions:

a)

Uncontrolled hypertension

b)

History of heart disease

c)

History of substance abuse

d)

History of depression

31.
Quiz 2 - What schedule is Adipex-P?
a)
IV
b)
III
c)
II
d)
V
32.
Quiz 2 - Which of the following would be the indication for Adipex-P?
a)
Obesity management
b)
Low testosterone
c)
Low thyroid
d)
Erectile dysfunction
33.

Quiz 2 - Select all the patient characteristics that should be considered when initiating phentermine from the list below:

a)

Renal function (adjusted for IR formulation)

b)

Pregnancy (if applicable; not safe to use)

c)

History of bradycardia

d)

History of chronic fatigue syndrome

34.

Quiz 1 - Which of the following adverse events are associated with Actos?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Edema

c)

Exacerbation of heart failure

d)

Atrial fibrillation

e)

Infertility

35.
Quiz 1 - Which of the following is Prandin's drug class?
a)
Meglitinide
b)
Biguanide
c)
Thiazolidinedione
d)
Sulfonylurea
36.
Quiz 1 - Patients starting on this antidiabetic medication should be counseled to skip the dose if they are not eating a meal
a)
Repaglinide
b)
Metformin
c)
Canagliflozin
d)
Pioglitazone
37.
Quiz 1 - Which of the following is important to consider when starting a patient on a thiazolidinedione ("glitazone")?
a)
Heart failure comorbidity
b)
Sulfonamide allergy
c)
Risk of arthritis
d)
Autoimmune disease
e)
Medulary thyroid cancer
38.
Quiz 2 - How many times can Viagra be administered for treatment of erectile dysfunction?
a)
Once only
b)
Up to 3 times
c)
Twice daily
d)
Up to 5 times
39.
Quiz 1 - What is the general rationale for including sulfonylureas on the Beers list?
a)
Risk of prolonged hypoglycemia
b)
Risk of bone fracture
c)
Risk of anticholinergic side effects
d)
Risk of fluid overload (if concomitant HF)
40.
Quiz 1 - What should patients taking sulfonylureas be counseled on regard meals?
a)
Eat at regular intervals
b)
Eat with high-fat meals
c)
Take on empty stomach
d)
Do not take with regard to meals
41.
Quiz 2 - What differentiates tadalafil from sildenafil and vardenafil?
a)

Tadalafil has the longest duration of action (36 hours)

b)
Tadalafil has the shortest duration of hours (4-5 hours)
c)
Tadalafil can be taken multiple times a day and the others cannot
d)
Tadalafil must be taken 1 hour prior to sexual activity and the others are 30 min
42.
Quiz 2 - Select all of the limitations related to desiccated thyroid, as opposed to levothyroxine
a)
Dessiccated thyroid is from animal protein (risk of allergic reaction)
b)
T3 and T4 can vary from batch to batch but levothyroxine is all T4
c)
Dessicated thyroid must be taken with calcium to prevent bone loss
d)
Dessicated thyroid can cause hypoglycemia
e)
Dessicated thyroid is contraindicated in pregnancy
43.
Quiz 2 - Which best describes how oral thyroid preparations should be administered, with respect to food
a)
Fasting state (empty stomach)
b)
15 min prior to eating
c)
Take with a fatty meal
d)
Food does not affect the bioavailability
44.
Quiz 2 - Select all of the important counseling points from below related to Viagra:
a)
Drinking alcohol can increase side effects such as dizziness and tachycardia
b)
Take between 30 min to 4 hours before sexual activity
c)
Seek emergency medical attention if your erection lasts longer than 4 hours
d)
Headache and facial flushing may occur
e)
Must take with a meal for full effect
45.
Quiz 2 - Select all of the formulations sildenafil is available in
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Rectal
d)
Transdermal patch
e)
Transermal gel
46.
Quiz 2 - Select all considerations regarding concomitant medications when starting a patient on vardenafil:
a)
Other Rx which can increase QT interval (additive)
b)
Use of nitrates (additive hypotension)
c)
Use of beta-blockers (additive bradycardia)
d)
Use of H2RAs (opposing effect to vardenafil)
47.
Quiz 2 - Select all of the important counseling points from below related to varenicline:
a)
May cause vivid dreams / nightmares
b)
May cause GI upset (can take with food)
c)
Must not start until after quit date
d)
Has many drug interactions, so check with doctor / pharmacist before anything
48.
Quiz 2 - What is the mechanism of action for Chantix?
a)
Partial agnoist at receptors where nicotine acts in brain
b)
Blocks nicotinic receptors in brain
c)
Stimulates nicotinic receptrs
d)
Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
49.
Quiz 2 - Which formulation of varenicline is used to treat dry eye?
a)
Nasal spray
b)
Eye drop
c)
Oral
d)
Topical eye ointment
50.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the antidiabetic medications from below which require renal dose adjustments (as monotherapy)
a)
Linagliptin
b)
Sitagliptin
c)
Saxagliptin
d)
Canagliflozin
e)
Dapagliflozin
51.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the antidiabetic medications from below which require renal dose adjustments (as monotherapy)
a)
Dulaglutide
b)
Exenatide
c)
Glimepiride
d)
Glipizide
e)
Insulin aspart
52.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the antidiabetic medications from below which require renal dose adjustments (as monotherapy)
a)
Metformin
b)
Insulin NPH
c)
Pioglitazone
d)
Repaglinide
53.

Quiz 1 and 2 - Select all of the medications from below which are only available as an injection

a)
Trulicity
b)
Byetta
c)
Victoza
d)
Tradjenta
e)
Saxenda
54.

Quiz 1 and 2 - Select all of the medication classes from below which are only available by mouth

a)
Biguanides
b)
DPP-4 inhibitors
c)
GLP-1 agonists
d)
Sulfonylureas
e)
Meglitinides
55.
Quiz 1 - Select the sulfonylureas from this list
a)
Glucophage
b)
Prandin
c)
Amaryl
d)
Glucotrol
e)
Avandia
56.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the correct statements about saxagliptin
a)
Not typically associated with hypoglycemia as monotherapy
b)
Not recommended if patients have a history of pancreatitis
c)
Can be taken with or without food
d)
Contraindicated in heart failure
e)
Do not combine with metformin (renal failure)
57.
Quiz 1 - Select all of the correct statements about sitagliptin
a)
Works by inhibiting DPP-4
b)
Take with first meal of day
c)
Can enhance hypoglycemia when combined with sulfonylureas
d)
Can cause lactic acidosis when given with IV contrast
58.
Quiz 2 - Select all of the PDE5 inhibitors from the list below:
a)
Levitra
b)
Viagra
c)
Cialis
d)
Chantix
e)
Androderm
59.

Quiz 2 - Select all of the indications for hydroxychloroquine:

a)

Malaria

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)

d)

Gout

e)

Breast cancer

60.

Quiz 2 - Select all considerations from below that are appropriate for a patient starting Plaquenil:

a)

Pregnancy status (contraindicated)

b)

QT prolongation risk (including concomitant medications)

c)

Eye health (fundus exam at baseline)

d)

Use of insulin (additive hypoglycemia)

61.

Quiz 2: What differentiates tirzepatide from semaglutide?

a)

Tirzepatide is an agonist for both GIP and GLP-1 but semaglutide is only GLP-1

b)

Semaglutide is an agonist for both GIP and GLP-1 but tirzepatide is only GLP-1

c)

Semaglutide has an FDA-approved indication for obesity but tirzepatide does not

d)

Tirzepatide can lead to GI issues but semaglutide does not

e)

Tirzepatide is available PO and SQ but semaglutide is only SQ

62.

Quiz 1: Select the short-acting insulin from below

a)

Humulin-R

b)

Humulin-N

c)

Lantus

d)

Humalog

Similar Resources on Wayground

NSG2311 Exam 3 Crash Review

60 questions

NSG2311 Exam 3 Crash Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

RAD 217 Final Comprehensive Review

60 questions

RAD 217 Final Comprehensive Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

ICE PART 1

63 questions

ICE PART 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

NSG2320 Exam 2 Content Review

62 questions

NSG2320 Exam 2 Content Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

đề 2

65 questions

đề 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Urinary System

67 questions

Urinary System

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

NUR 265 Exam 3 Review

58 questions

NUR 265 Exam 3 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University