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Atherosclerosis: Pathogenesis, Causes, and Management

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which event most directly initiates atherosclerotic plaque development in arterial walls?

a)

Complete occlusion causing distal ischemia

b)

Thrombus organization into fibrous tissue

c)

Calcification of the lipid-rich necrotic core

d)

Endothelial injury to the inner artery lining

2.

During early plaque evolution, macrophages engulf LDL and transform into which cell type?

a)

Smooth muscle cells migrating

b)

Fibroblasts producing scar tissue

c)

Platelets forming white clots

d)

Foam cells within fatty streaks

3.

Which lipid abnormality most strongly promotes atherosclerosis?

a)

Elevated low-density lipoprotein levels

b)

Increased high-density lipoprotein levels

c)

Low total cholesterol concentrations

d)

Reduced triglyceride-rich lipoproteins

4.

Which mechanism best explains hypertension accelerating plaque formation?

a)

Arterial spasm reduces nitric oxide

b)

Salt retention expands plasma volume

c)

Renal hypoperfusion raises renin levels

d)

Mechanical stress damages endothelium

5.

Which stage sequence correctly reflects plaque progression over time?

a)

Fibrous cap to rupture to lipid influx

b)

Calcification to lipid entry to cap

c)

Thrombosis to inflammation to migration

d)

Fatty streak to fibrous cap to calcification

6.

Which patient factor is a nonmodifiable risk for atherosclerosis?

a)

High alcohol intake each weekend

b)

Cigarette smoking over many years

c)

Sedentary behavior with poor diet

d)

Family history of premature disease

7.

Which preventive action most directly targets smoking-related endothelial injury?

a)

Using alcohol to relieve stress

b)

Reducing daily cigarettes by half

c)

Complete cessation of tobacco products

d)

Switching to filtered cigarette brands

8.

Which diagnostic test provides invasive visualization of coronary arterial lumens using contrast dye and X-rays?

a)

Computed tomography angiography

b)

Coronary angiography procedure

c)

Magnetic resonance angiography

d)

Carotid duplex ultrasound

9.

A 58-year-old with diabetes and high LDL begins a statin. What is the primary therapeutic goal of this medication?

a)

Reduce arterial calcification rates

b)

Dissolve existing arterial thrombi

c)

Lower LDL cholesterol concentrations

d)

Raise HDL cholesterol concentrations

10.

Which medication class primarily reduces the risk of thrombus after plaque rupture?

a)

Nitrates for vasodilation

b)

Antihistamines for inflammation

c)

Diuretics such as furosemide

d)

Antiplatelet agents like aspirin

11.

In severe coronary stenosis unresponsive to medication, which procedure restores blood flow by bypassing obstructions?

a)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

b)

Percutaneous balloon angioplasty

c)

Renal artery stent placement

d)

Endarterectomy of carotids

12.

A 66-year-old with long-standing hypertension and smoking develops unstable angina. Which pathologic change most likely precipitated symptoms?

a)

Dilation of the artery with vasodilation

b)

Progressive HDL elevation and clearance

c)

Rupture of a fibrous cap with thrombosis

d)

Regression of inflammation and healing

13.

Which structural feature distinguishes a trans fatty acid from a cis unsaturated fatty acid?

a)

Branched chains around each double bond

b)

Hydrogen atoms on same side of double bond

c)

Presence of multiple hydroxyl functional groups

d)

Hydrogen atoms on opposite sides of double bond

e)

Absence of any carbon–carbon double bonds

14.

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils primarily does which of the following?

a)

Breaks triglycerides into glycerol and free cholesterol

b)

Introduces new cis double bonds, increasing fluidity

c)

Removes all double bonds completely, forming polyols

d)

Converts some double bonds to single bonds, creating trans isomers

e)

Oxidizes fatty acids to aldehydes and ketones

15.

Industrial trans fats are most commonly produced by which process?

a)

Esterification of free fatty acids

b)

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils

c)

Thermal isomerization of cholesterol

d)

Cold pressing of tropical oils

e)

Complete saponification of triglycerides

16.

Which lipid profile change is most strongly linked to trans fat intake?

a)

Lower LDL with unchanged HDL levels

b)

Lower LDL and higher HDL cholesterol

c)

Higher HDL with unchanged LDL levels

d)

Unchanged LDL and HDL cholesterol

e)

Higher LDL and lower HDL cholesterol

17.

Which statement best describes natural sources of trans fats in the diet?

a)

Small amounts from ruminant meat and dairy

b)

Large amounts from cold-water fish species

c)

Moderate amounts from eggs and legumes

d)

High amounts from olive and avocado oils

e)

Trace amounts from refined table sugars

18.

Which health outcome has the strongest evidence of association with dietary trans fats?

a)

Increased risk of cardiovascular disease

b)

Reduced risk of atherosclerotic plaque

c)

Lower incidence of chronic inflammation

d)

Improved insulin sensitivity in adults

e)

Better endothelial function in arteries

19.

Food labels requiring disclosure of trans fat content primarily aim to achieve what?

a)

Encourage manufacturers to add more preservatives

b)

Eliminate the need for ingredient statements

c)

Help consumers make more informed choices

d)

Replace nutrition facts with front-of-pack logos

e)

Mandate identical serving sizes across products

20.

Which alternative fat avoids trans fats because hydrogenation is brought to completion?

a)

Butter blends enriched with trans isomers

b)

Unrefined seed oils with high linolenic acid

c)

Interestified fats with added cholesterol

d)

Partially hydrogenated oils that are soft

e)

Fully hydrogenated oils that are solid

21.

Which consumer action most directly reduces dietary trans fat intake?

a)

Avoid products listing partially hydrogenated oils

b)

Choose any product labeled low sodium content

c)

Prefer foods fortified with plant sterols only

d)

Select items advertising natural flavorings

e)

Replace all oils with tropical oil blends

22.

Why do trans-configured double bonds lead to different physical properties than cis?

a)

Extra carbons increase mass and enhance fluidity

b)

Bent chains promote weaker packing and lower melting

c)

Straighter chains allow tighter packing and higher melting

d)

Reactive bonds cause rapid oxidative degradation

e)

Polar bonds increase solubility in aqueous media

23.

Which enzyme hydrolyzes cholesterol esters to free cholesterol and fatty acids in the CHOD-PAP method?

a)

Catalase

b)

Peroxidase

c)

Cholesterol oxidase

d)

Cholesterol esterase

24.

In the CHOD-PAP sequence, free cholesterol is oxidized to cholest-4-en-3-one with formation of which byproduct?

a)

Water molecule

b)

Oxygen radical

c)

NADH

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

25.

The peroxidase step forms a colored quinoneimine dye by oxidizing a chromogenic pair commonly composed of which reagents?

a)

Biuret reagent and copper

b)

Coomassie dye and protein

c)

Tetramethylbenzidine and urea

d)

4-aminantipyrine and phenol

26.

At what wavelength is the absorbance of the colored product typically measured in the CHOD-PAP assay?

a)

Around 700 nm

b)

Around 620 nm

c)

Around 500 nm

d)

Around 280 nm

27.

Which statement best describes the relationship between color intensity and cholesterol concentration in this assay?

a)

Color intensity is directly proportional

b)

Color intensity is inversely proportional

c)

Color intensity is constant regardless

d)

Color intensity shows a logarithmic inverse

28.

During the reaction initiation step, the sample is added to reagents containing which set of enzymes and substrates?

a)

Cholesterol esterase, cholesterol oxidase, peroxidase, 4-aminantipyrine, phenol

b)

Lipase, hexokinase, peroxidase, ATP, NADH

c)

Trypsin, urease, catalase, TMB, phenolphthalein

d)

Amylase, LDH, peroxidase, pyruvate, o-dianisidine

29.

What incubation temperature is typically used to allow the CHOD-PAP reactions to proceed?

a)

Approximately 25°C

b)

Approximately 4°C

c)

Approximately 37°C

d)

Approximately 56°C

30.

Which substances are specifically noted as potential interferents at high concentrations in the colorimetric measurement?

a)

Albumin and globulin

b)

Sodium and potassium

c)

Glucose and lactate

d)

Hemoglobin and bilirubin

31.

Which advantage is attributed to the CHOD-PAP method in clinical laboratories?

a)

Lowest cost due to manual mixing

b)

No need for calibration curve

c)

High specificity due to enzymatic reactions

d)

Universal applicability to all analytes

32.

Which sample quality issue may affect results in the CHOD-PAP assay?

a)

Lipemic or hemolyzed specimens

b)

Excess anticoagulant EDTA

c)

Overly alkaline buffers

d)

Deionized water contamination

33.

To determine cholesterol concentration, the measured absorbance is compared against which reference?

a)

A hemoglobin nomogram

b)

A normal patient chart

c)

A standard calibration curve

d)

A reagent blank only

34.

If bilirubin is markedly elevated, what is the most likely analytical effect in the CHOD-PAP assay?

a)

Conversion of dye to a blue chromophore

b)

No impact on quinoneimine dye formation

c)

Activation of cholesterol oxidase activity

d)

Negative interference with color formation

35.

Which component is often labeled 'bad' cholesterol due to its role in atherogenesis?

a)

High-density lipoprotein cholesterol

b)

Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol

c)

Total serum cholesterol

d)

Very low-density lipoprotein cholesterol

36.

Which statement best describes HDL cholesterol?

a)

Transports cholesterol to liver for excretion

b)

Carries cholesterol from liver to tissues

c)

Primarily transports dietary triglycerides

d)

Represents sum of all serum lipids

37.

Which lipid is primarily stored in adipocytes and used for energy?

a)

Triglycerides in fat cells

b)

HDL particles in plasma

c)

LDL particles in plasma

d)

VLDL remnants in serum

38.

Which component is typically estimated as Triglycerides divided by 5 (mg/dL)?

a)

Non-HDL cholesterol

b)

Total cholesterol level

c)

VLDL cholesterol level

d)

HDL cholesterol level

39.

What is the usual fasting duration before a standard lipid panel?

a)

Two to four hours fasting

b)

Fasting not required

c)

Nine to twelve hours fasting

d)

Twenty-four hours fasting

40.

Which total cholesterol value aligns with a typical desirable range?

a)

Between two hundred and two forty mg/dL

b)

Greater than three hundred mg/dL

c)

Less than two hundred mg/dL

d)

Around two hundred fifty mg/dL

41.

Which LDL cholesterol range is considered optimal in adults?

a)

One thirty to one fifty-nine mg/dL

b)

One sixty to one eighty-nine mg/dL

c)

Less than one hundred mg/dL

d)

One hundred to one twenty-nine mg/dL

42.

What HDL threshold is generally protective for women?

a)

Sixty mg/dL or higher

b)

Thirty mg/dL or higher

c)

Forty mg/dL or higher

d)

Fifty mg/dL or higher

43.

Which triglyceride level is typically considered normal?

a)

Greater than four hundred mg/dL

b)

Less than one hundred fifty mg/dL

c)

One fifty to one ninety-nine mg/dL

d)

Two hundred to four hundred mg/dL

44.

Elevated LDL cholesterol most directly increases risk for which outcome?

a)

Chronic obstructive lung disease

b)

Autoimmune thyroiditis development

c)

Atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease

d)

Acute kidney stone formation

45.

A patient’s triglycerides are markedly high and HDL is low. Which interpretation fits best?

a)

Purely elevated HDL syndrome

b)

Atherogenic dyslipidemia pattern

c)

Isolated hyperalphalipoproteinemia

d)

Familial hypo-beta-lipoproteinemia

46.

Which initial management step is recommended for high LDL cholesterol?

a)

Discontinue all physical activity

b)

High-dose corticosteroid therapy

c)

Immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics

d)

Lifestyle changes then consider statins

47.

Which scenario most warrants repeating a lipid panel after lifestyle counseling?

a)

Evaluating bone mineral density

b)

Assessing visual acuity changes

c)

Screening for acute infection

d)

Monitoring response to therapy

48.

A patient presents with LDL 170 mg/dL, HDL 35 mg/dL, TG 240 mg/dL. Which is the most appropriate combined risk interpretation?

a)

Isolated HDL elevation only

b)

Low cardiovascular risk profile

c)

Normal triglyceride pattern

d)

High atherosclerotic risk profile

49.

Which mechanism most directly leads to hepatic steatosis in fatty liver disease?

a)

Increased albumin synthesis by hepatocytes

b)

Enhanced bile acid secretion into the intestine

c)

Excess ketone body excretion by the kidneys

d)

Imbalance between fat delivery and export capacity

50.

Insulin resistance promotes fatty liver primarily by causing which change in adipose tissue?

a)

Enhanced leptin sensitivity reducing appetite

b)

Decreased adipogenesis storing fewer triglycerides

c)

Increased lipolysis releasing free fatty acids

d)

Suppressed chylomicron production in enterocytes

51.

Which factor best distinguishes NAFLD from AFLD?

a)

Rate of progression to end-stage liver disease

b)

Degree of central adiposity and waist circumference

c)

Presence or absence of significant alcohol intake

d)

Magnitude of ALT elevation over normal ranges

52.

NASH is best described as which condition?

a)

Inflammatory form of NAFLD causing hepatocellular injury

b)

Early asymptomatic stage of alcoholic fatty liver

c)

Pure triglyceride accumulation without inflammation

d)

Fibrosis-free steatosis that never progresses

53.

Which pattern of liver enzymes most often suggests fatty liver disease?

a)

Extremely high ALT and AST exceeding tenfold

b)

Normal ALT and AST with high bilirubin only

c)

Markedly low ALT with normal AST levels

d)

Mildly elevated ALT and AST in blood tests

54.

What does FibroScan measure in the evaluation of liver disease?

a)

Liver stiffness to assess fibrosis severity

b)

Hepatic fat fraction to quantify steatosis

c)

Bile duct caliber to detect obstruction

d)

Portal venous flow to gauge hypertension

55.

Which imaging test is most commonly used first to detect liver fat accumulation?

a)

MRI because of best tissue specificity

b)

Ultrasound due to accessibility and safety

c)

CT scan because of highest sensitivity

d)

PET scan for metabolic activity mapping

56.

Which risk factor most strongly increases the likelihood of NAFLD?

a)

Obesity with associated insulin resistance

b)

Chronic viral hepatitis coinfection

c)

High-protein ketogenic dietary patterns

d)

Gallstone disease causing biliary pain

57.

Which medication class is used to address dyslipidemia in fatty liver management?

a)

Loop diuretics to excrete sodium

b)

Proton pump inhibitors for reflux

c)

Beta-blockers to reduce heart rate

d)

Statins to lower atherogenic lipids

58.

Which statement about alcohol and fatty liver is most accurate?

a)

Complete abstinence is essential for AFLD patients

b)

Moderate drinking improves insulin sensitivity

c)

Alcohol has no effect on hepatic fat handling

d)

Short-term abstinence reverses cirrhosis rapidly

59.

Which combination best represents components of metabolic syndrome linked to NAFLD risk?

a)

Hypothyroidism, bradycardia, low triglycerides

b)

Leukocytosis, fever, elevated lactate levels

c)

Anemia, hyponatremia, low blood pressure

d)

Hypertension, hyperglycemia, abnormal cholesterol

60.

Which precaution directly targets progression from steatosis to NASH?

a)

Intermittent alcohol binges to relieve stress

b)

Avoidance of vegetables to reduce fiber intake

c)

High-fructose diet to elevate glycogen stores

d)

Regular aerobic exercise to improve insulin sensitivity

61.

Which diagnostic procedure is definitive for grading inflammation and fibrosis in fatty liver disease?

a)

Liver biopsy with microscopic assessment

b)

Nonfasting lipid profile measurement

c)

Serum ALT to AST ratio calculation

d)

Hepatic ultrasound brightness score

62.

In a patient with severe obesity and refractory NAFLD, which advanced intervention may be considered?

a)

Long-term steroids to reduce inflammation

b)

Plasmapheresis to clear inflammatory mediators

c)

Bariatric surgery for sustained weight loss

d)

Chelation therapy to remove heavy metals

63.

Which pathophysiologic sequence best explains fat accumulation and injury in steatosis?

a)

Autoantibody formation, complement activation

b)

Reduced bile salts, cholestasis, pigment deposition

c)

Hepatic copper overload, mitochondrial toxicity

d)

Increased FFA influx, oxidative stress, inflammation