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nutrition exam 2

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Petros is getting his energy expenditure measured by direct calorimetry. The 1 liter of water surrounding the chamber has an initial reading of 15 degrees Celsius. The final reading is 2015 degrees Celsius. How many calories did he expend?

a)

1000

b)

1500

c)

2000

d)

2500

2.

Peg's parents are both obese. She has dieted at least six times, each time losing a considerable amount of weight and subsequently regaining it. Peg does not exercise. Which of the following is true about Peg's situation?

a)

Her frequent yo-yo dieting have likely led to greater amounts of lean body mass.

b)

Her problem is genetic and there is no reason for her to attempt to lose weight.

c)

When she ends a diet, she likely regains additional body fat.

d)

Her problem results from poor habits, but genetics will prevent her from ever losing weight.

3.

Bill expends 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from basal metabolism?

a)

250 to 375 kcal

b)

500 to 1050 kcal

c)

1200 to 1500 kcal

d)

1500 to 2000 kcal

4.

Lower-body obesity, also known as _____ obesity, is a pattern of body fat distribution that is associated with a lower incidence of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension than upper-body obesity.

a)

android

b)

gynoid

c)

morbid

d)

cardiometabolic

5.

The key to weight loss and maintenance can be thought of as a triad, which consists of three interrelated components. Which of the following is not a component of the weight loss triad?

a)

Drinking sugar-free beverages

b)

Controlling calorie intake

c)

Performing regular physical activity

d)

Engaging in positive behaviors

6.

The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in a minimum of ______ minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week to decrease risks for chronic diseases.

a)

60 to 120

b)

90 to 150

c)

150 to 300

d)

300 to 500

7.

Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT) refers to

a)

the energy burned during intentional physical activity.

b)

the energy burned during shivering, sweating, and hydrating.

c)

the energy burned during spontaneous movements (including fidgeting).

d)

the energy burned during sleeping, eating, and talking.

8.

When considering physical activity for weight control, keep in mind that sustained aerobic activity, including brisk walking, jogging, or cycling, burns more ______ than resistance activity.

a)

fat

b)

protein

c)

carbohydrates

d)

muscle

9.

Bill consumes 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from the thermic effect of food?

a)

200 to 375 kcal

b)

375 to 750 kcal

c)

750 to 1500 kcal

d)

1500 to 2500 kcal

10.

Men with body fat levels greater than _____ have increased health risks.

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

11.

The body's set point has been suggested to be

a)

a weight the body attempts to maintain closely.

b)

one's desirable and most healthy body weight.

c)

one's minimum body weight.

d)

the weight that is reached and maintained during mid-life.

12.

An example of cognitive restructuring for weight control is

a)

planning what to eat for breakfast the night before.

b)

decreeing all desserts off limits.

13.

According to the 3500-kcal rule, a daily deficit of 500 kcal should result in an approximate weight loss of about how many pounds per week?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

14.

For a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms, the body mass index would equal

a)

18.

b)

23.

c)

27.

d)

32.

15.

The best way to treat an underweight person is to advise him or her to

a)

eat high-fat foods such as heavy cream, cheeses, ice cream, and ground beef.

b)

stop exercising.

c)

eat energy-dense foods higher in plant fats like nuts and seeds.

d)

eat high-calorie foods at the beginning of each meal.

16.

The method for determining energy expenditure in which the amount of oxygen a person uses is measured is called

a)

direct calorimetry.

b)

indirect calorimetry.

c)

thermocalorimetry.

d)

bomb calorimetry.

17.

The Supplement Facts label on dietary supplements resembles the ______ and is required on all dietary supplements.

a)

Nutrition Facts label on foods

b)

Drug Facts label on drugs

c)

Cosmetic Facts label on cosmetics

d)

Prescription Facts label on medications

18.

Which of the following is true about the regulation of the production and sale of vitamin and mineral supplements?

a)

There is no federal legislation regulating supplements.

b)

The FDA does not regulate all vitamin and mineral supplements closely.

c)

Americans can rest assured that the federal government will protect them from vitamin and mineral supplement overuse.

d)

Supplement companies are free to market their products with invalid and illegal claims.

19.

Which B vitamin is required for amino acid metabolism?

a)

Thiamin

b)

Niacin

c)

Vitamin B-6

d)

Pantothenic acid

20.

Which of the following is a situation in which a person should consider vitamin D supplementation?

a)

Strict vegan diet

b)

Allergy to milk protein

c)

Kidney disease

d)

All of these choices are correct.

21.

The childhood disease rickets is due to a deficiency of

a)

vitamin A.

b)

vitamin C.

c)

vitamin D.

d)

vitamin K.

22.

The nutrient that prevents beriberi is

a)

vitamin B-12.

b)

niacin.

c)

riboflavin.

d)

thiamin.

23.

If a supplement label includes a structure/function claim, it also must include

a)

an illustration of the supplement's chemical structure.

b)

the FDA warning that these claims have not been evaluated by the agency.

c)

a reference to a scientific study that supports this claim.

d)

a description of the supplement's biological function.

24.

Examples of foods that are rich sources of phytochemicals include

a)

gluten-free products, wild game, red wine, and green tea.

b)

plant and animal proteins.

c)

monounsaturated oils, whole grains, and poultry.

d)

fruits, vegetables, whole grains, herbs, nuts, and seeds.

25.

Beta-carotene is a precursor to

a)

vitamin A.

b)

vitamin E.

c)

vitamin C.

d)

vitamin D.

26.

The apparent role of ________ in prevention of birth defects is similar to that of folate.

a)

choline

b)

vitamin C

c)

vitamin K

d)

selenium

27.

Which of the following population groups has increased vitamin C requirements?

a)

Vegetarians

b)

Alcoholics

c)

Older adults

d)

Smokers

28.

Acquiring sufficient vitamin B-12 from the diet may be a problem for vegans because

a)

phytic acid in vegetable proteins may inhibit its absorption.

b)

they lack the R-protein in the stomach.

c)

it is only found in animal products.

d)

protein deficiency limits synthesis of intrinsic factor.

29.

Vitamin E deficiency is least likely among

a)

those who follow a vegetarian diet.

b)

those who smoke cigarettes.

c)

premature infants.

d)

people with fat malabsorption.

30.

Vitamin B-12 is supplied almost entirely by

a)

animal products.

b)

vegetables and fruits.

c)

human intestinal bacteria.

d)

whole grain cereals and legumes.

31.

The following are some vitamin-like compounds found in our diets:

a)

quinone and ascorbic acid.

b)

alpha-tocopherol, thiamin, and ribonucleic acid.

c)

carnitine, inositol, taurine, and lipoic acid.

d)

pyridoxine, cobalamin, and retinoic acid.

32.

Vitamin E functions as

a)

a coenzyme.

b)

an antioxidant.

c)

a hormone.

d)

an enzyme.

33.

Formation and maintenance of collagen require

a)

thiamin.

b)

vitamin C.

c)

pantothenic acid.

d)

folate.

34.

Iron is best absorbed in its ______ form.

a)

heme

b)

nonheme

c)

synthetic

d)

coenzyme

35.

Water is lost from the body in four ways. Which is the biggest component of daily water losses?

a)

Feces

b)

Urine

c)

Perspiration

d)

Respiration

36.

A liter of perspiration lost by the body represents a heat loss of approximately _____ kilocalories.

a)

200

b)

400

c)

600

d)

800

37.

The typical American dietary pattern

a)

is too low in sodium.

b)

provides a healthy amount of sodium.

c)

is too high in sodium.

38.

Systolic pressure refers to the pressure in the

a)

veins when the heart is contracting.

b)

veins when the heart is relaxed.

c)

arteries when the heart is contracting.

d)

arteries when the heart is relaxed.

39.

Aldosterone signals the kidneys to conserve

a)

sodium.

b)

potassium.

c)

chloride.

d)

phosphate.

40.

What is the Adequate Intake (AI) for total water (including foods and beverages) for adult men?

a)

2.0 liters (8.5 cups)

b)

2.7 liters (11 cups)

41.

Which of the following is a symptom of dehydration?

a)

Sweaty skin

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Rapid heart rate

d)

Pale yellow urine

42.

Which of the following nondairy milk beverages has the highest protein content?

a)

Almond milk

b)

Flax milk

c)

Coconut milk

d)

Soy milk

43.

Interstitial fluid, lymph, gastrointestinal fluid, spinal fluid, plasma, and synovial fluid are part of ______ fluid.

a)

extracellular

b)

intracellular

44.

Most American adults exceed current recommendations for intake of

a)

water

b)

sodium

c)

potassium

d)

calcium

45.

Either too much or too little potassium in the blood can cause

a)

excessive sweating

b)

liver damage

c)

extreme hunger

d)

heart problems

46.

Stephen's blood pressure is 135/88, and he wishes to follow the principles of the DASH diet. For most Americans, this means increasing the intake of

a)

fruits and vegetables

b)

whole milk

c)

protein

d)

enriched grain products

47.

Copper is most similar to ______ in terms of food sources, absorption, and functions.

a)

iron

b)

potassium

c)

sodium

d)

magnesium

48.

The most economical way to supply fluoride is

a)

fluoride tablets

b)

topical fluoride gels

c)

fluoridation of the municipal water supply

d)

fortification of foods with fluoride

49.

Slow growth and delayed sexual development may occur with a deficiency of

a)

zinc

b)

copper

c)

molybdenum

d)

iron

50.

Which of the following is true about mineral bioavailability?

a)

Minerals from plants are better absorbed than minerals from animal products.

b)

Minerals from animal products are better absorbed than minerals from plants.

51.

Most of the extra calcium for pregnancy is needed during which trimester(s)?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

The RDA for calcium does not increase during pregnancy.

52.

For a woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 22, total pregnancy weight gain should fall within the range of ______ pounds.

a)

11 to 20

b)

15 to 25

c)

25 to 35

d)

28 to 40

53.

Consumption of nonfood items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as

a)

hyperemesis.

b)

pica.

c)

preeclampsia.

d)

eclampsia.

54.

Millie's prepregnancy BMI is 18. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy.

a)

11 to 20

b)

15 to 25

c)

25 to 35

d)

28 to 40

55.

Which of the following is a medical contraindication for breastfeeding?

a)

The infant has galactosemia.

b)

The mother has a mild cold.

c)

The infant was delivered by cesarean section.

d)

The mother consumes moderate caffeine.

56.

Rich in immune factors, the milk made by the mother's breast during the first few days after birth is

a)

colostrum.

b)

prolactin.

c)

foremilk.

d)

hindmilk.

57.

Choose the minerals that are needed in higher quantities during pregnancy.

a)

Iron, iodine, and zinc

b)

Calcium and phosphorus

c)

Sodium and chloride

d)

There are no minerals that need to be increased during pregnancy, only some vitamins.

58.

Which of the following is true about lifestyle habits and pregnancy?

a)

Repeated intake of four or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting is harmful to the fetus.

b)

All women must avoid NutraSweet during pregnancy because phenylalanine causes problems with fetal brain development.

c)

Use of tobacco products can be harmful for maternal health but has no impact on the developing fetus.

d)

Foodborne illness can be harmful for maternal health but has no impact on the developing fetus.

59.

Foodborne illness at any stage of the life span can be dangerous. However, infection with the foodborne pathogen ______ can be especially dangerous during pregnancy because this pathogen can cross the placenta and harm the developing fetus.

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Clostridium perfringens

60.

Which of the following statements is true about dietary supplements during pregnancy?

a)

Overdoses of vitamin B-12 could cause birth defects.

b)

Vitamin A supplements are usually necessary to meet increased needs during pregnancy.

c)

Research evidence supports routine supplementation with iron and folic acid.

d)

It is better to take amino acid supplements than to increase the intake of protein foods.

61.

For most pregnancies, women need to consume supplemental

a)

iron.

b)

vitamin B-12.

c)

calcium.

d)

zinc.

62.

Low iodine status during the first trimester of pregnancy may lead to

a)

hypertension in the offspring.

b)

gestational diabetes in the mother.

c)

edema in the mother.

d)

congenital hypothyroidism in the offspring.

63.

Which trimester is an especially critical period when poor nutrition or drug use can result in birth defects?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

64.

Kimi's prepregnancy BMI is 38. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy.

a)

11 to 20

b)

15 to 25

c)

25 to 35

d)

28 to 40

65.

To reduce oxidative damage to her eggs, a woman should consume

a)

brightly colored fruits and vegetables.

b)

beta-carotene supplements.

c)

zinc supplements.

d)

3 servings per day of dairy foods.

66.

Excessive intake of ______ has been linked to birth defects.

a)

vitamin A

b)

iron

c)

folate

d)

vitamin B-12

67.

For young children (ages 4 to 6), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends

a)

limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day.

b)

limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

c)

limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid ounces per day.

d)

consuming at least 8 fluid ounces per day of fruit juice.

68.

The World Health Organization growth standards stress that ______ is the biological norm for infant nutrition.

a)

feeding infant formula

b)

breastfeeding

c)

feeding cows' milk

d)

feeding infant formula and cereal

69.

Foreign proteins that cause adverse reactions in the body are called

a)

antigens.

b)

antibodies.

c)

probiotics.

d)

enzymes.

70.

If an infant is unusually tired or fussy, he cries without producing tears, and his eyes appear sunken, you should suspect

a)

dehydration.

b)

iron deficiency anemia.

c)

vitamin D deficiency.

d)

iron toxicity.

71.

Weight gain between the ages of 2 and 5 is about ______ pounds per year.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

72.

Infants receive a dose of vitamin K at birth to

a)

reduce the risk of hemorrhage.

b)

reduce the risk of blood clots.

c)

support immune function.

d)

promote bone health.

73.

High-fiber diets are

a)

recommended for infants after 4 months of age.

b)

recommended for infants after 6 months of age.

c)

not recommended for infants.

d)

recommended for breastfed infants only.

74.

Approximately what percentage of children with obesity remain obese through adulthood?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

75.

Which of the following is true about teens and vegetable consumption?

a)

Most teens meet the recommendation to consume 5 servings of fruits and vegetables per day.

b)

Most of a teen's vegetable intake is from pizza sauce.

c)

Potato chips and French fries make up more than one-third of the vegetable intake of teens.

d)

Most teens meet the AI for fiber despite low vegetable intake.

76.

An adverse reaction to a food that does not involve the immune system is

a)

a food allergy.

b)

a food intolerance.

c)

anaphylaxis.

d)

a food deterrence.

77.

Consuming too much protein may stress an infant's immature

a)

kidneys.

b)

lungs.

c)

heart.

d)

brain.

78.

As solid food is introduced, which of the following should be included in an infant's eating pattern?

a)

Iron-fortified infant cereal

b)

Low-fat, vitamin D-fortified cow's milk

c)

Hot dogs

d)

Honey

79.

Alcohol use during adolescence can result in

a)

impaired brain development.

b)

multiple nutrient deficiencies.

c)

liver damage.

d)

all of these.

80.

During the toddler years, many children are reluctant to try new foods. This trait is called

a)

food neophobia.

b)

food sensationalism.

c)

a food jag.

d)

food bias.

81.

Approximately one-third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is

a)

weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein dietary patterns.

b)

dietary patterns low in essential fatty acids.

c)

weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein dietary patterns.

d)

dietary patterns low in vitamin A.

82.

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Dietary Guidelines, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's dietary pattern is

a)

1 month of age.

b)

4 months of age.

c)

6 months of age.

d)

8 months of age.