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WorksheetsSLP + Audiology Question Bank — Microsoft Forms Quick Import
Total questions: 76
Worksheet time: 25mins
At approximately what age do most children reliably use two-word combinations?
9–12 months
12–18 months
18–24 months
30–36 months
Which phonological process is developmentally expected to be suppressed earliest for MOST English-speaking children?
Final consonant deletion
Reduplication
Cluster reduction
Stopping of fricatives
By kindergarten entry, the typical mean length of utterance (MLU) in morphemes is closest to:
2.0
3.0
4.0
5.0
Recurrent otitis media with effusion during infancy most directly increases risk for:
Hypernasal resonance
Fluctuating conductive hearing loss
Spastic dysarthria
Velopharyngeal insufficiency
Which factor is MOST associated with aspiration risk during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?
Reduced labial seal
Reduced tongue lateralization
Delayed or absent swallow initiation
Prolonged mastication with solids
Which environmental modification best supports a child with sensory over-responsivity during mealtimes?
Increase background noise to mask chewing
Provide bright overhead lighting
Offer predictable routines and reduce visual clutter
Serve multiple new foods at once
8. In developmental language disorder (DLD) without intellectual disability, a hallmark profile includes:
Significant language impairment with normal nonverbal intelligence
Severe intellectual disability with normal language skills
Normal language and cognitive development
Impaired motor skills with normal language abilities
Which is MOST characteristic of hypokinetic dysarthria associated with Parkinson's disease?
Irregular articulatory breakdowns and excess loudness variations
Strained–strangled voice and slow rate
Low vocal intensity, monopitch, and short rushes of speech
Hypernasality with nasal emission on pressure consonants
A primary prevention activity for voice disorders in teachers is:
Laryngeal massage
Voice amplification and vocal hygiene education
Resonant voice therapy
Botulinum toxin injections
For a bilingual child, which practice aligns with culturally and linguistically appropriate service delivery?
Testing only in English because it is the language of instruction
Using interpreters trained in SLP practice and assessing in all languages used
Avoiding family input to prevent bias
Penalizing code-switching in language samples
Under HIPAA, the minimum necessary rule means:
All records must be available to any school staff who ask
Only the least amount of protected health information needed for a task should be disclosed
Parents may not access records
PHI can be shared freely with caregivers
In evidence-based practice, the FIRST step after formulating a clinical question is to:
Apply treatment immediately
Search for the best available external evidence
Ignore client preferences
Create an insurance preauthorization
An SLP receives a gift card from a vendor in exchange for recommending a device. Ethically, the SLP should:
Accept because it benefits the client
Decline due to conflict of interest
Accept but disclose to the family only
Accept if the device is low-cost
Which red flag in a 2-year-old during screening MOST strongly indicates the need for language evaluation?
Limited pretend play
Fewer than 50 words and no two-word combinations
Preference for routines
Occasional toe walking
During an adult dysphagia screen on a stroke unit, the SLP's immediate priority is to:
Recommend a long-term diet
Determine the need for instrumental assessment and recommend NPO pending instrumental assessment when indicated
Teach Mendelsohn maneuver
Provide caregiver counseling only
Which sign during a swallow screen immediately after the swallow MOST increases suspicion for aspiration?
Wet/gurgly vocal quality after water trial
Slow mastication with soft solids
Anterior loss of bolus
Cough unrelated to swallowing
A comprehensive case history for voice should include:
Only laryngoscopy results
Daily vocal demands, hydration, irritants, onset/course, and medical history
Therapy preferences only
Singing range exclusively
Which factor MOST threatens the validity of a norm-referenced test score?
Using the exact standardized procedures
Testing in a quiet room
Administering beyond the instrument's age range
Following basal and ceiling rules
Observation of hypernasality and nasal emission on pressure consonants suggests referral to:
Neurology for suspected ALS
Otolaryngology/craniofacial team for possible velopharyngeal dysfunction
Cardiology for reflux
Occupational therapy for fine-motor issues
A child who fronts /k g/ and stops /s z/ shows which treatment target if using a complexity approach?
Train early-acquired sounds first
Target more complex clusters to induce broader system change
Focus solely on stimulable sounds
Use minimal pairs only for /t/ vs /k/
Stimulability testing primarily informs:
Eligibility
Intelligibility rating
Prognosis and target selection
Hearing status
Which feature is MOST consistent with developmental stuttering rather than cluttering?
Irregular speech rate
Excessive normal disfluencies without awareness
Part-word repetitions and blocks with secondary behaviors
Improved fluency at faster rates
Perceptual correlates of increased subglottal pressure in phonation include:
Reduced loudness
Increased sound pressure level (loudness)
Lower fundamental frequency
A dynamic assessment approach is especially useful to distinguish difference from disorder because it:
Ignores learning potential
Measures response to mediated learning experiences
Relies exclusively on standardized scores
Requires bilingual norms
Which task best probes discourse-level pragmatic competence in school-age children?
Picture naming
Nonword repetition
Narrative retell with cohesion analysis
Digit span forward
In adult cognitive-communication assessment post-TBI, prospective memory refers to:
Recalling a list of words after a delay
Remembering to carry out an intended action in the future
Orientation to place
Awareness of deficits
An AAC feature match refers to:
Selecting the most popular device
Matching device features to an individual's strengths, needs, and contexts
Using only eye-gaze access
Requiring spelling proficiency first
A child fails a pure-tone hearing screening at 1000 and 2000 Hz in one ear. The SLP should:
Immediately diagnose sensorineural loss
Refer for audiological evaluation and rescreen per protocol
Ignore because only one ear failed
Complete a tympanoplasty
Oral mechanism exam reveals reduced anterior tongue strength and residue in the floor of mouth after puree. This most directly indicates difficulty with:
Oral containment and propulsion
UES opening
Airway closure at the level of the vocal folds
Gastroesophageal reflux
Which profile is MOST consistent with flaccid dysarthria?
Imprecise consonants, hypernasality, and nasal emission due to LMN weakness
Irregular articulatory breakdowns due to cerebellar damage
Monopitch and monoloudness due to basal ganglia dysfunction
Strained–strangled voice due to bilateral UMN damage
Which is MOST characteristic of psychogenic aphonia (a functional voice disorder)?
Consistently normal laryngeal structure and whisper with normal cough
Vocal fold paralysis on stroboscopy
Severe edema and nodules
Fixed unilateral adduction
37. When writing goals, which component best reflects measurability?
Including specific criteria for measuring progress
Stating the purpose of the goal
Describing the resources needed
Identifying the people involved
Which of the following is the best example of a measurable speech therapy goal?
Improve articulation.
Produce /s/ in initial position at the word level with 80% accuracy across 2 sessions.
Work on speech clarity.
Increase confidence.
For a child with DLD, a treatment target that increases communicative effectiveness across contexts exemplifies:
Vertical goal attack strategy
Generalization-focused intervention
Pull-out service only
Drill without feedback
In motor speech treatment, principles of motor learning suggest that during acquisition:
Blocked practice and frequent, specific feedback may be beneficial initially
Random practice with faded feedback is always harmful
Knowledge of results should never be used
Practice amount does not matter
Which recommendation best reflects person-centered care?
Select goals solely from standardized test errors
Prioritize goals that align with the client’s values and daily participation needs
Avoid family input to maintain objectivity
Use identical goals for clients with the same diagnosis
Which of the following is the BEST way to measure progress in language intervention?
Collect repeated language samples and patient-reported outcome measures
Retest yearly with the same standardized test only
Use a single probe before discharge
Use a single probe before discharge
The BEST indicator that a treatment plan requires modification is:
Client reports enjoying sessions
No improvement on carefully designed performance probes across multiple sessions
Insurance requests updated notes
Clinician preference for new materials
Minimal pairs therapy primarily targets:
Phonetic placement only
Phonemic contrasts to reduce error patterns
Respiratory support
Prosody
For childhood apraxia of speech, which approach is MOST aligned with current evidence?
Non-speech oral-motor exercises only
Integral stimulation with high practice trials and varied prosody
Language-based intervention only
Auditory bombardment without production
In preschool stuttering, indirect treatment often emphasizes:
Punishing disfluencies
Modifying the child's communication environment and caregiver interaction styles
Teaching stuttering modification only
Which is a core element of fluency shaping for school-age children?
Cancellations and pull-outs
Easy/gentle onset and continuous phonation
Confronting stuttering openly (desensitization) only
Operant punishment
Resonant voice therapy is designed to:
Increase medial compression with hard glottal attack
Achieve strong voice with minimal impact stress at the vocal folds
Eliminate nasal resonance entirely
Lower pitch substantially
For hypokinetic dysarthria, a common evidence-based focus is:
Reduce loudness
Increase vocal effort and amplitude of movement (e.g., LSVT principles)
Eliminate breath groups
Target hypernasality
A context-based approach to morphosyntax for school-age DLD would MOST likely include:
Random sentence drills without context
Embedding target morphemes in meaningful discourse and curriculum activities
Exclusively nonverbal tasks
Phonemic awareness only
Which strategy best supports vocabulary depth?
Teach word lists for one day only
Use rich instruction with definitions, examples, non-examples, and multiple contexts
Avoid repetition
Focus only on synonyms
An effective pragmatic language intervention for adolescents on the autism spectrum often emphasizes:
Memorizing scripts only without real practice
Naturalistic practice in authentic contexts with explicit teaching and supports
Eliminating all restricted interests
Punishment for missed cues
Video modeling is MOST useful for:
Teaching voicing contrasts
Training swallowing maneuvers
Learning social routines and conversational skills
Auditory discrimination of minimal pairs
For a client with right-hemisphere damage and neglect, which environmental modification is MOST appropriate?
Place all important items on the neglected side only
Use leftside anchoring and structured scanning tasks
Dim lighting to reduce visual cues
Increase task complexity immediately
A primary goal in TBI rehabilitation aligned with the ICF framework is to:
Enhance participation in daily life activities
Focus solely on physical recovery
Ignore environmental factors
Prioritize only cognitive improvement
For an emergent communicator, the MOST foundational AAC priority is:
Spelling novel utterances
Establishing a reliable yes/no and cause–effect access method
Programming rate enhancement strategies
Using only high-tech devices
Key best practice in AAC intervention includes:
Restricting access to AAC to encourage natural speech
Partner training and aided language input across contexts
Waiting until cognitive skills are ‘age appropriate’
Focusing only on requesting functions
The primary communication training focus for adults with new cochlear implants typically includes:
Lipreading only
Auditory training with structured-to-naturalistic listening tasks
Avoiding noise exposure entirely
Pitch-matching exercises only
For post-stroke dysphagia with delayed swallow initiation to thin liquids, an immediate compensatory strategy may include:
Chin-tuck trial as indicated and controlled bolus volumes
Wide neck extension
Eliminate all oral intake permanently
Only effortful swallow
In pediatric feeding therapy for limited food repertoire, an evidence-based principle is to:
Use forced feeding to increase volume
Implement systematic desensitization and gradual exposure with positive reinforcement
Eliminate parent involvement
Introduce only crunchy textures
Which statement best describes the primary role of outer hair cells in the cochlea?
Transduce mechanical energy into neural impulses
Provide active amplification and sharpen frequency tuning
Transmit efferent signals to the brainstem
Generate the endocochlear potential
Most information critical for speech intelligibility is concentrated around:
125–250 Hz
500–1,000 Hz
2,000–4,000 Hz
8,000–10,000 Hz
Which structure primarily detects vertical linear acceleration?
Utricle
Saccule
Horizontal semicircular canal
Posterior semicircular canal
In psychoacoustics, the upward spread of masking refers to:
Low-frequency maskers disproportionately masking higher-frequency signals
High-frequency maskers disproportionately masking lower-frequency signals
Equal masking across frequencies
No change in masking with level
A sloping high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss in an older adult is MOST consistent with:
Otosclerosis
Acoustic neuroma
Strial (metabolic) presbycusis
Which statement correctly relates dB HL to dB SPL?
dB HL equals dB SPL at all frequencies
dB HL is referenced to frequency-specific RETSPL values derived from normal thresholds
dB HL is always 0 dB SPL
dB SPL is referenced to 20 μPa only for low frequencies
Usher syndrome is characterized by:
Progressive vision loss with retinitis pigmentosa and congenital sensorineural hearing loss
Mixed hearing loss with osteogenesis imperfecta
Atresia of external auditory canals with normal vision
Fluctuating low-frequency conductive loss and normal vision
According to hearing conservation best practice, the 3-dB exchange rate and 85 dBA criterion level are associated with guidelines from:
OSHA
NIOSH/CDC
EPA
WHO pediatric screening
The '1–3–6' early hearing detection and intervention benchmarks refer to screening by 1 month, diagnosis by 3 months, and intervention by 6 months. This standard is issued by:
American Academy of Otolaryngology–Head and Neck Surgery
Joint Committee on Infant Hearing (JCIH)
American Tinnitus Association
For newborns in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), the preferred physiologic screening tool is:
Transient-evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAE)
Distortion product otoacoustic emissions (DPOAE)
Automated auditory brainstem response (AABR)
Behavioral observation audiometry
Infection control in audiology dictates that items contacting nonintact skin or mucous membranes require:
Cleaning only
Low-level disinfection
High-level disinfection or sterilization per device classification
No special procedures if single-use
An audiogram shows bilateral air–bone gaps, Type B tympanograms with normal ear canal volume, and absent acoustic reflexes. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
Otosclerosis
Ossicular discontinuity
Otitis media with effusion
Tympanic membrane perforation
A notch in bone-conduction thresholds around 2 kHz with normal tympanometry is MOST suggestive of:
Otosclerosis (Carhart notch)
Noise-induced hearing loss
Ménière disease
Speech recognition threshold (SRT) typically agrees within about _____ dB of the pure-tone average (PTA) at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz.
±2
±5
±10
±20
In a conductive hearing loss, word recognition at adequate sensation levels is expected to be:
Poor with rollover
Within normal/near-normal limits
Extremely variable with level-independent rollover
Worse in quiet than in noise
Masking for air-conduction testing with supra-aural earphones is generally required when the air–bone gap in the test ear exceeds:
5 dB and the presentation level could cross via 20 dB interaural attenuation
10 dB with 55 dB interaural attenuation
0 dB because interaural attenuation for AC is 0 dB
When the presentation level to the test ear could stimulate the non-test ear given IA ≈ 40 dB
A Type C tympanogram with normal compliance most commonly indicates:
Eustachian tube dysfunction with negative middle-ear pressure
Middle-ear effusion
Ossicular discontinuity
Absent ipsilateral and contralateral acoustic reflexes with normal tympanometry and a confirmed facial nerve (CN VII) lesion distal to the stapedial branch would MOST likely be:
Present reflexes at normal levels
Absent reflexes due to stapedius denervation
Elevated reflexes due to hyperacusis
Unaffected reflexes because reflexes depend on CN V
Presence of robust DPOAEs with absent/abnormal ABR and preserved cochlear microphonic is MOST consistent with:
Outer hair cell loss
Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
Conductive hearing loss
Normal auditory function
Which measure primarily assesses saccular function and the inferior vestibular nerve?
oVEMP
cVEMP
vHIT horizontal canals
Rotary chair VOR gain
The video head impulse test (vHIT) primarily evaluates:
Low-frequency VOR using sinusoidal stimulation
High-frequency, high-acceleration VOR for each semicircular canal
Gravitational otolith responses
Central pursuit and saccade systems only
