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test-2025

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Half-life of a drug refers to:

a)

A)Drug potency

b)

B)Time to reach peak

c)

C) Time to eliminate 50% of drug

d)

D) Absorption rate

2.
Full form of CPR is:
a)
Cardiac Pressure Reflex
b)
Central Pulmonary Rhythm
c)
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
d)
Cardiovascular Pulse Rescue
3.
What is the normal adult pulse rate?
a)
40–60 bpm
b)
60–100 bpm
c)
90–120 bpm
d)
100–140 bpm
4.

Which drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose?

a)

a) Naloxone

b)

b) Protamine sulfate

c)

c) N-acetylcysteine

d)


d) Flumazenil

5.

Infection control nurse is primarily responsible for:

a)

a) Administering antibiotics

b)

b) Isolation

c)

c) Surveillance and education

d)

d) Surgery coordination

6.

While transporting a patient with MRSA, what PPE is essential?

a)

a) Gown and mask

b)

b) Only gloves

c)

c) Head cover

d)

d) Eye goggles only

7.

Airborne precautions are required for which disease?

a)

a) HIV

b)

b) Hepatitis

c)

c) TB

d)

d) Typhoid

8.

Standard precautions include:

a)

a) Only HIV patients

b)

b) Only during surgery

c)

c) For all patients regardless of diagnosis

d)

d) For isolation wards only

9.

Which acid-base imbalance is likely in a patient with prolonged diarrhea?

a)

a) Metabolic alkalosis

b)

b) Respiratory alkalosis

c)

c) Metabolic acidosis

d)

d) Respiratory acidosis

10.

Which electrolyte imbalance causes cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness?

a)

a) Hypernatremia

b)

b) Hypokalemia

c)


c) Hypophosphatemia

d)

d) Hypochloremia

11.

What is the rationale for using a filter in blood transfusion?

a)

a) Speed up transfusion

b)

b) Remove air

c)

c) Warm the blood

d)

d) Prevent clot embolism

12.

What is the first sign of phlebitis?

a)

a) Fever

b)

b) Redness and warmth at site

c)

c) Edema above site

d)

d) Purulent drainage

13.

Which color code is used for oxygen cylinders?

a)

a) Black and white

b)


b) Blue and white

c)

c) Red and white

d)

d) Green and white

14.

Which solution is commonly used for IV fluid replacement?

a)

a) Dextrose 5%

b)

b) NS 0.9%

c)

c) Distilled Water

d)

d) Hydrogen Peroxide

15.

How often should vital signs be checked in a post-operative patient (first 24 hrs)?

a)

a) Every 12 hours

b)

b) Every hour

c)


c) Every 6 hours

d)

d) Once a day

16.

What should be done before administering digoxin?

a)

a) Measure temperature

b)

b) Check respiratory rate

c)

c) Check apical pulse

d)


d) Check blood sugar

17.

What is the normal respiratory rate in adults?

a)

a) 10–14 breaths/min

b)

b) 12–20 breaths/min

c)

c) 20–28 breaths/min

d)

d) 18–26 breaths/min

18.

Which site is best for checking capillary blood glucose?

a)

a) Forearm

b)

b) Palm

c)

c) Fingertip

d)


d) Foot

19.

Which drug is used for emergency anaphylaxis?

a)

a) Atropine

b)

b) Adrenaline

c)

c) Lidocaine

d)

d) Diazepam

20.

What does R in RACE fire safety stand for?

a)

a) Rescue

b)


b) Remove

c)

c) React

d)

d) Run

21.

What does a positive Babinski reflex in an adult suggest?

a)

a) Normal reflex

b)

b) Brainstem lesion

c)

c) Upper motor neuron lesion

d)

d) Lower motor neuron damage

22.

Which side should a nurse stand when ambulating a patient with right-sided weakness?

a)

a) Left side

b)

b) Right side ✅

c)

c) Behind

d)

d) In front

23.

Which cranial nerve is assessed with a penlight for pupil response?

a)

a) CN I

b)

b) CN II

c)

c) CN III

d)

d) CN V

24.

Which sign indicates deep vein thrombosis?

a)

a) Babinski sign

b)

b) Homan’s sign

c)

c) Brudzinski’s sign

d)

d) Kernig’s sign

25.

A nurse notes a client’s potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change is expected?

a)

a) Tall peaked T waves

b)

b) ST elevation

c)

c) U waves

d)

d) Prolonged QT interval

26.

Which insulin has no peak action?

a)

a) Regular insulin

b)

b) NPH insulin

c)

c) Lispro

d)

d) Glargine

27.

A nurse receives a post-op patient with a RR of 8 and pinpoint pupils after morphine. What is the priority action?

a)

a) Start oxygen

b)

b) Increase IV fluids

c)

c) Administer naloxone

d)


d) Perform chest physiotherapy

28.

Which technique is best for auscultating bowel sounds?

a)

a) Palpate before auscultation

b)

b) Use diaphragm in all quadrants

c)


c) Auscultate only the right lower quadrant

d)

d) Use bell of stethoscope

29.
  1. What is the earliest sign of hypoxia?

a)
  1. a) Cyanosis

b)
  1. b) Bradycardia

c)
  1. c) Confusion and restlessness

d)

  1. d) Clubbing

30.

What is the most effective method to prevent urinary tract infections in catheterized patients?

a)

a) Irrigate catheter daily

b)

b) Change catheter every 2 days

c)

c) Maintain closed drainage system

d)


d) Increase fluid restriction

31.

What is the correct angle for inserting an intradermal injection?

a)

a) 45°

b)

b) 60°

c)

c) 15°

d)


d) 90°

32.

Which statement about body mechanics is correct?

a)

a) Bend from the waist when lifting

b)

b) Keep the load close to the body

c)

c) Use back muscles more than legs

d)

d) Twist spine when turning

33.

Which lab value best reflects nutritional status?

a)

a) Hemoglobin

b)

b) Blood glucose

c)

c) Serum albumin

d)


d) Serum creatinine

34.

Which of the following is an example of a dependent nursing intervention?

a)

a) Turning the patient every 2 hours

b)

b) Administering prescribed medication

c)

c) Teaching self-care

d)

d) Providing emotional support

35.

How many chambers are there in the human heart?

a)

a) 2

b)

b) 3

c)

c) 4

d)

d) 5

36.

What is the full form of CPR?

a)

a) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

b)

b) Central Pulse Rate

c)

c) Cardiac Pressure Response

d)

d) Chest Pulse Recovery

37.

What is the normal pulse rate in adults?

a)

a) 40–60 bpm

b)

b) 60–100 bpm

c)


c) 100–120 bpm

d)

d) 120–160 bpm

38.

What is the average normal blood pressure in an adult?

a)

a) 100/60 mmHg

b)

b) 120/80 mmHg

c)

c) 130/90 mmHg

d)

d) 90/70 mmHg

39.

The term “asepsis” means:

a)

a) Use of antibiotics

b)

b) Prevention of infection

c)


c) Use of gloves

d)

d) Fever

40.

What is the purpose of a thermometer?

a)

a) Measure blood sugar

b)

b) Measure BP

c)

c) Measure body temperature

d)


d) Measure pulse

41.

Which is the correct sequence of handwashing?

a)

a) Wet hands → Apply soap → Scrub → Rinse → Dry

b)

b) Apply soap → Dry → Rinse → Wet hands

c)

c) Scrub → Wet hands → Apply soap → Rinse

d)

d) Rinse → Scrub → Apply soap → Dry

42.

Which solution is commonly used for wound cleaning?

a)

a) water

b)

b) Dettol

c)

c) Normal saline

d)

d) Vinegar

43.

How many bones are there in an adult human body?

a)

a) 206

b)

b) 210

c)

c) 204

d)

d) 220

44.

The most basic need according to Maslow’s hierarchy is:

a)

a) Love and belonging

b)

b) Self-actualization

c)

c) Safety

d)

d) Physiological

45.

What is the term used for difficulty in breathing?

a)

a) Tachypnea

b)

b) Dyspnea

c)

c) Apnea

d)

d) Orthopnea

46.

What is the best way to reduce hospital-acquired infections?

a)

a) Isolate every patient

b)

b) Give antibiotics to all

c)

c) Practice proper hand hygiene

d)


d) Use face masks only

47.

A patient receiving IV fluids shows signs of crackles in lungs, puffy eyelids, and increased BP. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

a) Decrease IV rate

b)


b) Check temperature

c)

c) Give diuretics

d)

d) Elevate legs

48.

In a patient receiving warfarin, which lab value must be monitored?

a)

a) APTT

b)

b) INR

c)

c) FBS

d)

d) Platelet count

49.

Which of the following would be a sign of early hypoxia?

a)

a) Cyanosis

b)

b) Restlessness

c)


c) Slow breathing

d)

d) Bradycardia

50.

fter abdominal surgery, the patient has a hard, distended abdomen and no bowel sounds. What is suspected?

a)

a) Peritonitis

b)

b) Constipation

c)

c) Infection

d)

d) Diarrhea

51.

Which condition results from rapid infusion of cold IV fluids?

a)

a) Hypotension

b)

b) Arrhythmias

c)


c) Fever

d)

d) Hyperkalemia

52.

The Glasgow Coma Scale score includes:

a)

a) Temperature

b)

b) Reflexes

c)

c) Eye, verbal, and motor response

d)

d) Pulse, RR, BP

53.

According to Freud, the “id” operates on the principle of:

a)

a) Morality

b)

b) Reality

c)

c) Pleasure

d)


d) Logic

54.

A patient with schizophrenia says, “The moon talks to me.” This is an example of:

a)

a) Illusion

b)

b) Hallucination

c)


c) Delusion

d)

d) Confabulation

55.

What is the primary defense mechanism in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

a)

a) Denial

b)

b) Rationalization

c)

c) Isolation

d)

d) Undoing

56.

A nurse observes a 4-year-old playing “doctor” with dolls. What type of play is this?

a)

a) Competitive

b)

b) Solitary

c)

c) Imitative

d)

d) Parallel

57.

Which finding is most concerning in a patient post-thyroidectomy?

a)

a) Hoarseness of voice

b)

b) Pain at incision site

c)

c) Positive Trousseau’s sign

d)

d) Slight neck swelling

58.

Patient after cholecystectomy develops fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. This indicates:

a)

a) Atelectasis

b)

b) Pulmonary embolism

c)

c) Bile duct obstruction

d)

d) UTI

59.

Normal hemoglobin (Hb) range in adult females is:

a)

a) 10–12 g/dL

b)

b) 11.5–15.5 g/dL

c)


c) 13–18 g/dL

d)

d) 8–10 g/dL

60.

Which value indicates hyperglycemia?

a)

a) FBS 75 mg/dL

b)

b) RBS 140 mg/dL

c)

c) FBS 126 mg/dL

d)

d) PPBS 90 mg/dL

61.

A patient refuses treatment. The nurse should:

a)

a) Document and inform physician

b)

b) Force the treatment

c)

c) Educate the family only

d)

d) Call the legal team

62.

What is the correct order for donning PPE?

a)

a) Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves

b)

b) Mask → Gown → Gloves → Goggles

c)

c) Gloves → Mask → Gown → Goggles

d)

d) Gown → Gloves → Mask → Goggles

63.

Which color-coded bin is used for soiled dressing waste?

a)

a) Yellow

b)

b) Blue

c)

c) Red

d)

d) Black

64.

While transporting a patient with MRSA, what PPE is essential?

a)

a) Gown and mask

b)


b) Only gloves

c)

c) Head cover

d)

d) Eye goggles only

65.

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

a)

a) Ranitidine

b)

b) Omeprazole

c)

c) Metoclopramide

d)

d) Sucralfate

66.

Which antibiotic can cause tendon rupture as a rare side effect?

a)
Tetracycline
b)
Fluoroquinolone antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
c)
Macrolides
d)
Penicillin
67.

A nurse is preparing 2.5 mL of a drug. The ampoule contains 5 mL = 250 mg. How many mg will be given?

a)

a) 100 mg

b)

b) 125 mg

c)


c) 200 mg

d)

d) 250 mg

68.

Half-life of a drug means:

a)

a) The time it takes for a drug to be completely eliminated from the body.

b)

b)The duration a drug remains effective in the bloodstream.

c)

c) The time required for a drug to reach its maximum concentration.

d)

d) The time required for the concentration of a drug to decrease to half its initial value.

69.

Which drug can cause Red Man Syndrome if infused rapidly?

a)

a) Vancomycin

b)

b) Amikacin

c)

c) Ciprofloxacin

d)

d) Metronidazole

70.

What is the smallest bone in the human body?

a)

A) Nasal bone

b)

B) Stapes

c)

C) Ulna

d)

D) Patella

71.

In which year was the first nursing school founded by Florence Nightingale?

a)

A) 1845

b)

B) 1854

c)

C) 1860

d)


D) 1875

72.

The first trained nurse in India was:

a)

A) Florence Nightingale

b)

B) Mary Eliza Mahoney

c)

C) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur

d)

D) Miss Grace Neill

73.

In what year was the Indian Nursing Council (INC) established?

a)

a) 1965

b)

b) 1950

c)

c) 1972

d)

d) 1947

74.

Who wrote the book “Notes on Nursing: What It Is and What It Is Not”?

a)

A) Clara Barton

b)

B) Florence Nightingale

c)


C) Lillian Wald

d)

D) Dorothea Dix

75.

Which human sense is most powerful in triggering memories?"

a)

A) Sight

b)

B) Sound

c)

C) Smell

d)


D) Touch

76.

"Your patient refuses a life-saving surgery. What should you respect?"

a)

A) Justice

b)

B) Beneficence

c)

C) Autonomy

d)

D) Non-maleficence

77.

Emergency Prioritization

"Which patient will you see first?"

a)

A) Fever, 102°F

b)

B) Chest pain, breathless

c)


C) Cut on hand

d)

D) Mild cough

78.

What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

a)

d) To provide medication instructions

b)

b) To outline patient goals and interventions

c)

a) To document patient history

d)

c) To schedule appointments

79.

Which vital sign is typically assessed first in a patient assessment?

a)

d) Respiratory rate

b)

c) Pulse

c)

b) Temperature

d)

a) Blood pressure

80.

What is the most common site for intramuscular injections in adults?

a)

a) Deltoid muscle

b)

b) Vastus lateralis

c)

c) Gluteus medius

d)

d) Rectus femoris

81.

What is the primary purpose of using a sphygmomanometer?

a)

b) Measure blood pressure

b)

d) Measure body temperature

c)

a) Measure blood glucose

d)

c) Measure heart rate

82.

Which of the following is a sign of dehydration?

a)

d) Clear urine

b)

c) Weight gain

c)

b) Dry skin

d)

a) Increased urination

83.

What is the recommended angle for administering an intramuscular injection?

a)

d) 45°

b)

c) 90°

c)

b) 30°

d)

a) 15°

84.

What is the normal range for blood glucose levels in adults?

a)

d) 60–90 mg/dL

b)

a) 70–100 mg/dL

c)

c) 90–130 mg/dL

d)

b) 80–120 mg/dL

85.

What is the primary purpose of using sterile technique in healthcare?

a)

d) To improve patient comfort

b)

c) To reduce costs

c)

b) To prevent infection

d)

a) To save time

86.

Which vital sign is most indicative of a patient's pain level?

a)

d) Patient-reported pain scale

b)

c) Respiratory rate

c)

b) Heart rate

d)

a) Blood pressure

87.

Which vital sign is most critical to monitor in a patient with heart failure?

a)

d) Temperature

b)

a) Blood pressure

c)

c) Respiratory rate

d)

b) Heart rate

88.

What is the recommended position for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

a)

b) Prone

b)

d) Lateral

c)

a) Supine

d)

c) High Fowler's

89.

What is the primary purpose of using a tourniquet?

a)

d) To provide warmth

b)

b) To reduce swelling

c)

a) To stop bleeding

d)

c) To immobilize a limb

90.

Which vital sign is most indicative of a patient's fluid status?

a)

d) Temperature

b)

c) Respiratory rate

c)

b) Heart rate

d)

a) Blood pressure