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Physio Practice 3

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which event directly exposes the binding sites on actin filaments during muscle contraction?

a)

ATP binds to the myosin head

b)

Calcium binds to troponin

c)

Myosin detaches from actin

d)

Tropomyosin binds to myosin

2.

What causes the myosin head to detach from the actin filament?

a)

Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Hydrolysis of ATP

c)

Binding of a new ATP molecule to myosin

d)

Movement of tropomyosin back into place

3.

Which of the following describe roles of ATP in muscle contraction?

(Select all that apply)

a)

binds to myosin to release it from actin after a powerstroke

b)

ATP hydrolysis "cocks" myosin head

c)

directly opens calcium channels in SR

d)

powers calcium pumps that return Ca2+ to SR for relaxation

e)

binds to actin to cause powerstroke

4.

Which statements about troponin and tropomyosin are true?

(Select all that apply)

a)

Troponin is responsible for hydrolyzing ATP during contraction

b)

Tropomyosin blocks actin’s active sites in resting muscle

c)

Tropomyosin directly binds to calcium

d)

Troponin physically moves tropomyosin when bound to calcium

5.

neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is best described as:

a)

site where motor neurons release calcium to trigger contraction

b)

synapse where motor neuron communicates with muscle fiber to start contraction

c)

gap between muscle fibers where sodium enters cell

d)

location where AChE breaks down neurotransmitters

6.

protein chain that holds thick filaments in place

a)

M line

b)

myofibril

c)

transverse (T) tubules

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

e)

Z disc

7.

contractile organelle of muscle fibers

a)

M line

b)

myofibril

c)

transverse (T) tubules

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

e)

Z disc

8.

extension of sarcolemma that brings action potential into cell

a)

M line

b)

myofibril

c)

transverse (T) tubules

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

e)

Z disc

9.

organelle that stores, releases, and takes up calcium ions

a)

myofibril

b)

transverse (T) tubules

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

d)

Z disc

e)

sarcomere

10.

protein structure that binds sarcomeres to each other

a)

myofibril

b)

transverse (T) tubules

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

d)

Z disc

e)

sarcomere

11.

myofibril functional unit

a)

myofibril

b)

transverse (T) tubules

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

d)

Z disc

e)

sarcomere

12.

Which statements accurately describe the role of calsequestrin in muscle cells?

(SELECT TWO)

a)

binds and “hides” Ca²⁺ within the SR to store for contraction

b)

hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for the myosin power stroke

c)

blocks actin binding sites at rest to prevent contraction

d)

is required so that Ca²⁺ can be transported from the sarcoplasm back into SR

13.

a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

a)

sarcomere

b)

motor unit

c)

neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

d)

myofibril

14.

Muscles that require precise, fine movements, such as the muscles controlling the fingers for writing, typically have motor units with:

a)

large number of muscle fibers per motor neuron

b)

small number of muscle fibers per motor neuron

c)

equal numbers of muscle fibers in all motor units

d)

no relationship between fiber number and precision

15.

Muscles that produce strong, powerful movements, such as the quadriceps during a jump, typically have motor units with:

a)

large number of muscle fibers per motor neuron

b)

small number of muscle fibers per motor neuron

c)

equal numbers of muscle fibers in all motor units

d)

no relationship between fiber number and precision

16.

process by which the weakest motor units are used first, followed by progressively stronger motor units, to increase muscle force during a contraction

a)

recruitment

b)

adaptation

c)

unfused tetanus

d)

fused tetanus

e)

serial contraction

17.

sustained muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers partially relax between stimuli, producing a wavering contraction

a)

recruitment

b)

adaptation

c)

unfused tetanus

d)

fused tetanus

18.

sustained contraction without any relaxation between stimuli, producing a smooth, continuous contraction

a)

recruitment

b)

adaptation

c)

unfused tetanus

d)

fused tetanus

19.

Muscle tone keeps skeletal muscles firm.

How do muscles maintain muscle tone?

a)


small groups of motor units are alternatively active and inactive

b)

all motor units contract simultaneously at a low level

c)

muscles remain fully relaxed until voluntary contraction occurs

d)

calcium is continuously released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum without regulation

20.

muscle contraction in which the muscle changes length while tension remains constant, producing movement

a)

isotonic contraction

b)

isometric contraction

21.

muscle contraction in which the muscle develops tension but does not change length, producing no movement

a)

isotonic contraction

b)

isometric contraction

22.

delay between stimulus and muscle contraction as AP moves over sarcolemma, down T-tubules, and Ca2+ is released

a)

Latent Period

b)

Contraction Period

c)

Relaxation Period

d)

Refractory Period

23.

Ca2+binds to troponin exposing myosin binding sites on actin

myosin heads interact with actin and pull towards M-line generating tension and the muscle shortens

a)

Latent Period

b)

Contraction Period

c)

Relaxation Period

d)

Refractory Period

24.

Ca2+ pumped back into SR, myosin binding sites covered by tropomyosin, myosin heads detach from actin

a)

Latent Period

b)

Contraction Period

c)

Relaxation Period

d)

Refractory Period

25.

short time following a muscle fiber’s action potential during which it cannot respond to another stimulus

a)

Latent Period

b)

Contraction Period

c)

Relaxation Period

d)

Refractory Period

26.

second stimulus arrives after the Refractory period, but before the muscle has completely relaxed from the first

Results in second contraction stronger than first contraction

a)

wave summation

b)

tetanus

c)

recruitment

d)

twitch contraction

27.

process that enables ATP production during low oxygen by converting pyruvate to lactate in muscles; the lactate is sent to the liver, turned into glucose, and returned to the muscles for energy

a)

krebs cycle

b)

lactate (cori) cycle

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

electron transport chain

28.

which two processes describe how lactate is recycled after being produced in muscle cells during anaerobic metabolism?

(select TWO)

a)

transported to liver to go through gluconeogenesis for future ATP production

b)

excreted by the kidneys to maintain acid–base balance

c)

converted back into glucose within muscle cells if oxygen is restored quickly

d)

converted into glycogen within the mitochondria for long-term storage

29.

high-energy molecule in muscle cells that quickly donates a phosphate group to ADP, regenerating ATP during the first few seconds of contraction

a)

glycogen

b)

creatine phosphate

c)

myoglobin

d)

hemoglobin

e)

ATP synthase

30.

oxygen-binding protein in muscle cells that stores and releases oxygen to support aerobic ATP production during contraction

a)

glycogen

b)

creatine phosphate

c)

myoglobin

d)

hemoglobin

e)

ATP synthase

31.

Which events occur during rigor mortis?

(select all that apply)

a)

SR becomes leaky to Ca2+, allowing sustained cross-bridge formation, results in fused tetanus

b)

new ATP molecules are continually produced to maintain muscle tone

c)

ATP reserves are quickly depleted, preventing detachment of myosin from actin

d)

actin and myosin remain linked until muscle proteins begin to decompose

e)

nerve impulses continue stimulating the muscle for several hours after death

32.

pacemaker of the heart, located in the right atrium, spontaneously generates action potentials to set rate and rhythm of cardiac contractions; initiates impulses that spread through the atria causing atrial contraction

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle

d)

Right and Left bundle branches

e)

Purkinje Fibers

33.

located between the atria and ventricles; receives impulses from the SA node and provides a critical delay to ensure the atria fully contract and fill the ventricles before ventricular contraction begins.

Is backup pacemaker if SA node fails

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle

d)

Right and Left bundle branches

e)

Purkinje Fibers

34.

electrical connection between the atria and ventricles; its smaller-diameter fibers and fewer gap junctions slow conduction so atrial contraction completes before ventricular contraction; transmits impulses from the AV node down the interventricular septum

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle

d)

Right and Left bundle branches

e)

Purkinje Fibers

35.

fibers that branch from the AV bundle and carry electrical impulses along the interventricular septum toward the apex of the heart, ensuring coordinated spread of depolarization to both ventricles

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle

d)

Right and Left bundle branches

e)

Purkinje Fibers

36.

large-diameter fibers that rapidly conduct impulses throughout the ventricular myocardium from apex to base, producing a coordinated and powerful contraction of the ventricles

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle

d)

Right and Left bundle branches

e)

Purkinje Fibers

37.

Phases of Cardiac Muscle AP:

Resting MP (-90mV)

equal, steady movement of K+ and Na+ across membrane, some K+ outflow

a)

Phase 4

b)

Phase 0

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 2

e)

Phase 3

38.

Phases of Cardiac Muscle AP:

Rapid depolarization, rapid Na+ outflow

a)

Phase 4

b)

Phase 0

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 2

e)

Phase 3

39.

Phases of Cardiac Muscle AP:

Slight dip in AP, fast Na+ gates close, K+ open causing dip

some K+ outflow

a)

Phase 4

b)

Phase 0

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 2

e)

Phase 3

40.

Phases of Cardiac Muscle AP:

Plateau. Balance between slow voltage-gate Ca2+ channels (inward) and some voltgage-gate K+ channels (outward).

Increased Ca2+ in sarcoplasm triggers contraction, long depolarization

a)

Phase 4

b)

Phase 0

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 2

e)

Phase 3

41.

Phases of Cardiac Muscle AP:

Repolarization. Ca2+ channels close. More K+ channels open

large K+ outflow

a)

Phase 4

b)

Phase 0

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 2

e)

Phase 3

42.

What is represented by P Wave?

a)

depolarization of both Atria

b)

depolarization of both ventricles (repolarization of Atria hidden here)

c)

repolarization of both ventricles

43.

What is represented by QRS complex?

a)

depolarization of both Atria

b)

depolarization of both ventricles (repolarization of Atria hidden here)

c)

repolarization of both ventricles

44.

What is represented by T wave?

a)

depolarization of both Atria

b)

depolarization of both ventricles (repolarization of Atria hidden here)

c)

repolarization of both ventricles

45.

Ventricular Filling

period between the T wave of one heartbead and the P wave of the next

a)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles are in diastole

b)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria in systole, Ventricles in diastole

c)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole, ventricular pressure↑, volume no change

d)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles in diastole; ventricles relax but volume no change

e)

AV valves closed, SL valves open; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole; blood is ejected into the arteries

46.

Atrial Contraction

P Wave

a)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles are in diastole

b)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria in systole, Ventricles in diastole

c)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole, ventricular pressure↑, volume no change

d)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles in diastole; ventricles relax but volume no change

e)

AV valves closed, SL valves open; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole; blood is ejected into the arteries

47.

Isovolumetric Contraction

start of the QRS complex

a)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles are in diastole

b)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria in systole, Ventricles in diastole

c)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole, ventricular pressure↑, volume no change

d)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles in diastole; ventricles relax but volume no change

e)

AV valves closed, SL valves open; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole; blood is ejected into the arteries

48.

Isovolumetric Relaxation

T wave

a)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles are in diastole

b)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria in systole, Ventricles in diastole

c)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole, ventricular pressure↑, volume no change

d)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles in diastole; ventricles relax but volume no change

e)

AV valves closed, SL valves open; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole; blood is ejected into the arteries

49.

Ventricular Ejection

end of the QRS complex

a)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles are in diastole

b)

AV valves open, SL valves closed; Atria in systole, Ventricles in diastole

c)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole, ventricular pressure↑, volume no change

d)

AV valves closed, SL valves closed; Atria/Ventricles in diastole; ventricles relax but volume no change

e)

AV valves closed, SL valves open; Atria in diastole, Ventricles in systole; blood is ejected into the arteries

50.

During a cardiac cycle, a patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is measured at 135 mL, and the end-systolic volume (ESV) is 65 mL.

What is the stroke volume (SV) of the patient’s heart?

a)

60mL

b)

70mL

c)

75mL

d)

-70mL

51.

A person has a stroke volume (SV) of 70 mL and a heart rate (HR) of 75 beats per minute.

What is this person’s cardiac output (CO)?

a)

4.25 L/min

b)

5.25 L/min

c)

5.75 L/min

d)

6.25 L/min

52.

A person has an end-diastolic volume (EDV) of 140 mL and an end-systolic volume (ESV) of 70 mL.
Their cardiac output (CO) is measured at 4.9 L/min.

What is this person’s heart rate (HR)?

a)

60 bpm

b)

70 bpm

c)

80 bpm

d)

90 bpm

53.

usually harmless; felt as heart 'skipping a beat'

a)

premature atrial contractions

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

bradycardia

d)

atrial tachycardia

e)

ventricle tachycardia

54.

problem with autorhythmic fibers overwhelming SA node

a)

premature atrial contractions

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

bradycardia

d)

atrial tachycardia

e)

ventricle tachycardia

55.

heartbeat under 60 bpm; caused by SA node misfiring

a)

premature atrial contractions

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

bradycardia

d)

atrial tachycardia

e)

ventricle tachycardia

56.

heartbeat above 100 bpm; felt as palpitations

a)

atrial tachycardia

b)

ventricle tachycardia

c)

ventricular fibrillation

d)

premature ventricular contractions

e)

premature atrial contractions

57.

life-threatening, rapid heartbeat arising in inferior chambers

a)

atrial tachycardia

b)

ventricle tachycardia

c)

ventricular fibrillation

d)

premature ventricular contractions

e)

premature atrial contractions

58.

life-threatening, ventricles stop pumping blood chambers quiver and beat ineffectively

requires the heart to be reset by an electric shock.

a)

atrial tachycardia

b)

ventricle tachycardia

c)

ventricular fibrillation

d)

premature ventricular contractions

e)

premature atrial contractions

59.

often called heart palpitations

caused by high BP, low blood oxygen, or heart attack

a)

atrial tachycardia

b)

ventricle tachycardia

c)

ventricular fibrillation

d)

premature ventricular contractions

e)

premature atrial contractions

60.

What factors regulate stroke volume and help ensure that the left and right ventricles pump equal volumes of blood?

(select all that apply)

a)

preload — degree of stretch of ventricular muscle fibers at end of diastole

b)

afterload — pressure that must be overcome before semilunar valves open

c)

contractility — forcefulness of ventricular contraction at a given preload

d)

refractory period — time during which muscle cell cannot respond to another stimulus

61.

increase strength of contraction, often by promoting Ca2+ inflow; increases stroke volume & cardiac output.

examples include norepinephrine, epinephrine, digitalis

a)

positive inotropic agent

b)

negative inotropic agent

62.

decrease strength of contraction by lowering intracellular Ca2+ levels or blocking β-adrenergic receptors;

reduces stroke volume & cardiac output.

Examples include: anaesthetics, beta blockers

a)

positive inotropic agent

b)

negative inotropic agent

63.

Least permeable, exchange of gases, small solutes,

only gaps are intercellular clefts

cell membrane of endothelial cells forms a tube

a)

Continuous Capillaries

b)

Fenestrated Capillaries

c)

Sinusoid Capillaries

64.

Moderately permeable, allows passage of larger molecules,

rapid exchange of fluids/larger solutes

has fenestrations covered by thin diaphragm

a)

Continuous Capillaries

b)

Fenestrated Capillaries

c)

Sinusoid Capillaries

65.

Highly permeable, allows passage of large proteins/cells,

free exchange between blood and tissue

large fenestrations w/out diaphragm

Gaps between endothelial cells, discontinuous lining

a)

Continuous Capillaries

b)

Fenestrated Capillaries

c)

Sinusoid Capillaries

66.

most important method of capillary exchange; substances move down concentration gradient (o₂ and nutrients from blood to tissues, co₂ and wastes from tissues to blood);

occurs through intercellular clefts, fenestrations, or directly through endothelial cells

a)

Diffusion

b)

Transcytosis

c)

Bulk Flow

67.

involves substances enclosed in vesicles that enter endothelial cells; important mainly for large, lipid-insoluble molecules such as albumin and insulin that cannot cross capillary walls by other means

a)

Diffusion

b)

Transcytosis

c)

Bulk Flow

68.

passive process where large numbers of ions, molecules, or particles move together in the same direction due to pressure gradients; main mechanism regulating blood and interstitial fluid volumes, including filtration (out of capillaries) and reabsorption (into capillaries)

a)

Diffusion

b)

Transcytosis

c)

Bulk Flow

69.

pressure inside the capillaries and pushes fluid out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid; it is generated by the pumping action of the heart and promotes filtration.

a)

Blood Hydrostatic Pressure

(BHP)

b)

Interstitial Fluid Osmotic Pressure

(IFOP)

c)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

(BCOP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Hydrostatic Pressure

(IFHP)

70.

pressure inside the capillaries and pulls fluid into the capillary from the interstitial space;is caused by the presence of plasma proteins that are too large to leave the capillary, and promotes reabsorption

a)

Blood Hydrostatic Pressure

(BHP)

b)

Interstitial Fluid Osmotic Pressure

(IFOP)

c)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

(BCOP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Hydrostatic Pressure

(IFHP)

71.

pressure is in the interstitial fluid and pulls fluid out of the capillary toward solutes in the interstitial space; it is created by proteins and other solutes in the interstitial fluid and promotes filtration

a)

Blood Hydrostatic Pressure

(BHP)

b)

Interstitial Fluid Osmotic Pressure

(IFOP)

c)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

(BCOP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Hydrostatic Pressure

(IFHP)

72.

pressure of the interstitial fluid that pushes fluid away; located outside capillaries but is ZERO and tends to promote reabsorption

a)

Blood Hydrostatic Pressure

(BHP)

b)

Interstitial Fluid Osmotic Pressure

(IFOP)

c)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

(BCOP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Hydrostatic Pressure

(IFHP)

73.

Net filtration pressure (NFP) represents the balance between pressures that promote filtration and those that promote reabsorption across capillary walls. Which of the following correctly expresses this relationship?

a)

NFP = (BHP + BCOP) – (IFOP + IFHP)

b)

NFP = (BHP + IFOP) – (BCOP + IFHP)

c)

NFP = (BCOP + IFHP) – (BHP + IFOP)

d)

NFP = (IFHP + IFOP) – (BHP + BCOP)

74.

As blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure (NFP) changes. Which of the following statements correctly describes this change?

a)

arterial end, NFP is negative and fluid moves into the capillary; venous end, NFP is positive and fluid leaves the capillary.

b)

arterial end, NFP is positive and fluid leaves the capillary; venous end, NFP is negative and fluid moves into the capillary.

c)

NFP is constant along the length of capillary, always promoting filtration

d)

At both ends, NFP is negative, and all fluid is reabsorbed into the capillary

75.

During Bulk Flow not all fluid filtered out of capillaries is reabsorbed. Which statement correctly describes what happens to the excess fluid?

a)

About 15% of filtered fluid enters lymphatic capillaries (~3 L/day) and is eventually returned to the blood

b)

All filtered fluid is immediately reabsorbed at the venous end of capillaries

c)

Excess filtered fluid is excreted directly into urine by the kidneys.

d)

None of the filtered fluid returns to the circulation

76.

At the arterial end of a capillary:

  • BHP = 35 mmHg

  • IFOP = 2 mmHg

  • BCOP = 25 mmHg

  • IFHP = 0 mmHg

What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)?

a)

9 mmHg

b)

10 mmHg

c)

11 mmHg

d)

12 mmHg

77.

At the venous end of a capillary:

  • BHP = 23 mmHg

  • IFOP = -2 mmHg

  • BCOP = 39 mmHg

  • IFHP = 0 mmHg

What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)?

a)

-17 mmHg

b)

-18 mmHg

c)

-19 mmHg

d)

-20 mmHg

78.

The value that reflects how well blood flows through the body and major organs is:

a)

cardiac output

(CO)

b)

stroke volume

(SV)

c)

mean arterial pressure

(MAP)

d)

pulse pressure

79.

The value calculated as the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure, representing the force the heart generates each time it contracts, is:

a)

cardiac output

(CO)

b)

stroke volume

(SV)

c)

mean arterial pressure

(MAP)

d)

pulse pressure

80.

A patient’s blood pressure is measured at 120/90 mmHg. What is their mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
(Hint: MAP = diastolic pressure + ⅓(systolic − diastolic))

a)

95 mmHg

b)

100 mmHg

c)

105 mmHg

d)

110 mmHg

81.

A patient’s blood pressure is measured at 120/90 mmHg. What is their pulse pressure?

a)

210 mmHg

b)

30 mmHg

c)

100 mmHg

d)

60 mmHg

82.

The pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are relaxed and filling with blood is called:

a)

systolic pressure

b)

diastolic pressure

83.

The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction, representing the peak force of blood against the artery walls, is called:

a)

systolic pressure

b)

diastolic pressure

84.

What factors affect the distribution of Cardiac Output.

(how the total amount of blood pumped by the heart (CO) is divided among different organs and tissues)

(select all that apply)

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Vascular Resistance

c)

Venous Return

d)

Velocity of Blood Flow

85.

What does vascular resistance refer to, and what factors determine it?

a)

ease of blood flow through vessels; depends on HR and blood volume

b)

opposition to blood flow caused by friction between blood and vessel walls; depends on lumen size, blood viscosity, and vessel length

c)

amount blood ejected per heartbeat; depends on SV and arterial pressure

d)

pressure difference between arteries and veins; depends on vessel elasticity and venous return

86.

What is venous return and what primarily drives it?

a)

flow of blood from heart to the arteries; driven by left atrial contraction

b)

volume of blood flowing back to heart through systemic veins; driven by pressure generated when left ventricle contracts

c)

rate blood flow through pulmonary circuit; driven by right ventricular contraction

d)

pressure difference between arteries and arterioles; driven by arterial recoil

87.

Which condition would most likely reduce venous return?

a)

decreased pressure in right atrium

b)

dilation of systemic veins

c)

increased pressure in the right atrium due to leaky tricuspid valve

d)

increased contraction strength of left ventricle

88.

What is velocity of blood flow, and what determines it?

a)

rate which blood moves through a vessel; decreases as cross-sectional area of vessels increases

b)

total volume of blood pumped per minute; determined by stroke volume and heart rate

c)

resistance blood encounters in vessels; determined by viscosity and vessel length

d)

pressure difference between arteries and veins; increases with vessel diameter

89.

What does circulation time refer to?

a)

time it takes for a red blood cell to move from artery to vein within a single tissue

b)

time required for one heartbeat

c)

time it takes for blood to move from the heart, through the body, and back to the heart

d)

time between ventricular systole and diastole

90.

How are velocity of blood flow and circulation time related to cardiac output?

a)

higher cardiac output increases blood flow velocity and decreases circulation time

b)

higher cardiac output decreases blood flow velocity and increases circulation time

c)

cardiac output does not affect either blood flow velocity or circulation time

d)

both increase as total vessel cross-sectional area increases

91.

In response to sympathetic stimulation, these hormones are released by the adrenal medulla to raise CO by increasing rate and force of heart contractions

a)

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

b)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin

c)

Atrial Natriuretic
Peptide (ANP) and Brain-type Natriuretic
Peptide (BNP)

92.

Produced by hypothalamus and released by posterior pituitary, these hormones increase BP by retaining water

a)

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

b)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin

c)

Atrial Natriuretic
Peptide (ANP) and Brain-type Natriuretic
Peptide (BNP)

93.

These hormones lower blood pressure by causing vasodilation and promoting loss of salt and water in urine

a)

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

b)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin

c)

Atrial Natriuretic
Peptide (ANP) and Brain-type Natriuretic
Peptide (BNP)

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