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Neuroscience and Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordination, balance, and posture?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Thalamus

2.

Damage to the occipital lobe would most likely affect which function?

a)

Hearing

b)

Vision

c)

Speech

d)

Balance

3.

Which cranial nerve controls facial expressions and taste on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

a)

Trigeminal (V)

b)

Facial (VII)

c)

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

d)

Hypoglossal (XII)

4.

The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to which vertebral level?

a)

C7

b)

T12

c)

L1–L2

d)

S1–S2

5.

Which glial cell maintains the blood-brain barrier?

a)

Oligodendrocyte

b)

Microglia

c)

Schwann cell

d)

Astrocyte

6.

What is the function of the myelin sheath?

a)

Protect neuron from toxins

b)

Generate neurotransmitters

c)

Increase speed of nerve impulse conduction

d)

Provide energy to the axon

7.

Which of the following describes the Sympathetic Nervous System?

a)

Rest and digest

b)

Fight or flight

c)

Controls voluntary movement

d)

Responsible for sensory input

8.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily used by the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Epinephrine

9.

The “fight or flight” response involves activation of which receptors?

a)
Muscarinic
b)

Andrenergic

c)

Nicotinic

10.

Which condition involves damage to myelin sheaths and slows nerve conduction?

a)

Multiple Sclerosis

b)

Guillain-Barré Syndrome

c)

Myasthenia Gravis

d)

Parkinson’s Disease

11.

Stimulation of Alpha-1 receptors causes:

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Decreased BP

12.

Beta-1 receptor stimulation primarily affects the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

GI tract

d)

Uterus

13.

Which drug is commonly used for anaphylaxis due to its alpha and beta activity?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Phenylephrine

14.

A patient on albuterol should be monitored for which side effect?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tremors

c)

Hypotension

d)

Sedation

15.

Which adrenergic drug is used for nasal congestion?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Clonidine

c)

Ephedrine

d)

Isoproterenol

16.

Clonidine primarily acts on which receptor type?

a)

Alpha-1

b)

Alpha-2 (central)

c)

Beta-1

d)

Beta-2

17.

Which neurotransmitter is released at sympathetic postganglionic neurons?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Serotonin

18.

Which adrenergic antagonist is used to treat hypertension and angina?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Albuterol

d)

Dopamine

19.

Activation of Beta-2 receptors in the uterus causes:

a)

Contraction

b)

Relaxation

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Spasm

20.

What is the antidote for extravasation of norepinephrine?

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Phentolamine

c)

Atropine

d)

Diazepam

21.

A nurse administering dopamine should monitor:

a)

Urine output

b)

Reflexes

c)

Temperature

d)

Skin turgor

22.

Beta-blockers decrease blood pressure primarily by:

a)

Increasing renin secretion

b)

Decreasing heart rate and contractility

c)

Increasing peripheral resistance

d)

Blocking muscarinic receptors

23.

Which of the following is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Amphetamine

c)

Ephedrine

d)

Albuterol

24.

Adrenergic drugs should be used cautiously in patients with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

25.

What is the typical adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis (IM)?

a)

0.1 mg

b)

0.3–0.5 mg

26.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with the parasympathetic system?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Serotonin

27.

Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist?

a)

Atropine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Physostigmine

28.

The antidote for anticholinergic poisoning is:

a)

Atropine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Naloxone

29.

Pilocarpine is primarily used for:

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Asthma

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Hypertension

30.

Which of the following causes “SLUDGE” symptoms when overdosed?

a)

Cholinergic agonists

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Local anesthetics

31.

Which enzyme is inhibited by cholinesterase inhibitors?

a)

Monoamine oxidase

b)

Acetylcholinesterase

c)

Tyrosine hydroxylase

d)

Dopamine decarboxylase

32.

Neostigmine is used to treat:

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Hypertension

33.

Which antimuscarinic is used preoperatively to reduce secretions?

a)
Scopolamine
b)

Oxybutynin

c)

Atroponine

d)

Benztropine

34.

Which side effect is typical of anticholinergic drugs?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Miosis

35.

Which of the following is contraindicated in glaucoma?

a)

Atropine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Physostigmine

36.

Succinylcholine is classified as a:

a)

Non-depolarizing blocker

b)

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

c)

Cholinesterase inhibitor

d)

Adrenergic agonist

37.

Which cholinergic drug is used for Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Donepezil

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Atropine

38.

A patient with asthma should avoid:

a)

Albuterol

b)

Atropine

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Scopolamine

39.

What does “SLUDGE” stand for in cholinergic crisis?

a)

Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis

b)

Sleep, Lethargy, Unconsciousness, Dizziness, Giddiness, Euphoria

c)

Sweating, Lethargy, Ulcer, Dryness, Gag reflex, Excitability

d)

None of the above

40.

A nurse giving atropine should monitor for:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Miosis

41.

What is the main mechanism of local anesthetics?

a)

Block potassium channels

b)

Block sodium channels

c)

Enhance GABA activity

d)

Stimulate dopamine receptors

42.

Which general anesthetic is a dissociative agent that increases BP and HR?

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

c)

Thiopental

d)

Etomidate

43.

What is the antidote for malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Atropine

d)

Diazepam

44.

Which anesthetic provides rapid recovery and antiemetic effects?

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

c)

Thiopental

d)

Isoflurane

45.

Which stage of anesthesia is desired for surgery?

a)

Analgesia

b)

Excitement

c)

Surgical anesthesia

d)

Medullary depression

46.

The mnemonic "PET-K" refers to:

a)

IV anesthetics (Propofol, Etomidate, Thiopental, Ketamine)

b)

Local anesthetics

c)

Inhalational agents

d)

Anxiolytic drugs

47.

Which gas anesthetic is least potent but useful for induction?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Sevoflurane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Halothane

48.

Which phase of anesthesia involves waking the patient?

a)

Induction

b)

Maintenance

c)

Recovery

d)

Excitement

49.

What receptor does propofol primarily enhance?

a)

NMDA

b)

GABA-A

50.

Which adverse effect is most dangerous with inhalational anesthetics?

a)

Nausea

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Hallucination

d)

Dry mouth

51.

Balanced anesthesia refers to:

a)

Using one strong drug

b)

Combining agents to achieve 4A’s safely

c)

Alternating IV and oral agents

d)

Using muscle relaxants only

52.

Local anesthetics are commonly used for:

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Pain control during minor procedures

c)

Hypertension

d)

Seizures

53.

A nurse must ensure NPO status before anesthesia to prevent:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Aspiration

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Infection

54.

Which condition may increase sensitivity to anesthetics?

a)

Obesity

b)

Elderly and pediatric patients

c)

Fever

d)

Pregnancy

55.

Which anesthetic phase includes airway monitoring as a priority?

a)

Induction

b)

Maintenance

c)

Recovery

d)

All of the above

56.

Benzodiazepines act by enhancing which neurotransmitter?

a)

Serotonin

b)

GABA

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetylcholine

57.

Which benzodiazepine is often used for preoperative sedation?

a)
Diazepam
b)

Lorazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Alprazolam

58.

Barbiturates act by:

a)

Blocking serotonin

b)

Prolonging GABA channel opening

c)

Blocking dopamine

d)

Activating adrenergic receptors

59.

A major risk of barbiturates is:

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Hypertension

60.

Which “Z-drug” is used for insomnia?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Zaleplon

c)

Eszopiclone

d)

All of the above

61.

Which drug acts as a melatonin receptor agonist?

a)

Buspirone

b)

Ramelteon

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Zolpidem

62.

Buspirone acts primarily on which receptor?

a)

Dopamine

b)

GABA

c)

5-HT1A (serotonin)

d)

Muscarinic

63.

Which anxiolytic has no risk of dependence but has a delayed onset?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Buspirone

c)

Midazolam

d)

Phenobarbital

64.

Which drug class has the highest overdose potential?

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Barbiturates

c)

SSRIs

d)

Antihistamines

65.

Benzodiazepine overdose can be reversed with:

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Naloxone

d)

Atropine

66.

SSRIs such as fluoxetine are used to treat:

a)

Acute anxiety attacks

b)

Chronic anxiety and depression

c)

Seizures

d)

Schizophrenia

67.

CBT focuses on changing:

a)

Brain chemistry

b)

Thoughts and behaviors

c)

Physical exercise

d)

Medication response

68.

Common nursing advice for hypnotic use:

a)

Use highest dose possible

b)

Avoid combining with alcohol

c)

Take with heavy meals

d)

Discontinue abruptly

69.

Which group is at highest risk of sedation-related falls?

a)

Teenagers

b)

Elderly

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Athletes

70.

The mnemonic “Low, Slow, Safe” reminds nurses to:

a)

Taper doses gradually

b)

Use lowest effective dose and monitor safety

c)

Administer fast and frequently

d)

None of the above

71.

Which is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a)

Rubor

b)

Calor

c)

Tumor

d)

Paleness

72.

Which prostaglandin increases body temperature?

a)

PGI2

b)

PGE2

c)

PGF2a

d)

PGD2

73.

NSAIDs reduce inflammation by inhibiting:

a)

COX enzymes

b)

Lipoxygenase

74.

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits which enzyme?

a)

COX-1

b)

COX-2

c)

Both COX-1 and COX-2

d)

Lipase

75.

Which is a side effect of NSAIDs?

a)

Gastric ulcer

b)

Constipation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

76.

Which NSAID is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Aspirin

d)

All of the above

77.

Acetaminophen differs from NSAIDs because it lacks:

a)

Antipyretic effect

b)

Analgesic effect

c)

Anti-inflammatory effect

d)

Hepatotoxicity

78.

The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is:

a)

Naloxone

b)

N-acetylcysteine

c)

Dantrolene

d)

Atropine

79.

Corticosteroids reduce inflammation by:

a)

Inhibiting phospholipase A2

b)

Blocking dopamine

c)

Increasing histamine

d)

Stimulating prostaglandins

80.

Long-term corticosteroid therapy can cause:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Weight loss

d)

Bradycardia

81.

Opioids act primarily on which receptor type?

a)

Dopaminergic

b)

GABAergic

c)

Mu-opioid

d)

Serotonin

82.

Naloxone is used to reverse:

a)

Benzodiazepine overdose

b)

Opioid overdose

c)

Barbiturate overdose

d)

Anticholinergic toxicity

83.

Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Macrolides

d)

Tetracyclines

84.

Common side effect of opioids:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Hypertension

d)

Anxiety

85.

Which antibiotic causes tooth discoloration in children?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

86.

Aminoglycosides may cause:

a)

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Hypotension

d)

Diarrhea

87.

Metronidazole is contraindicated with:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Milk

c)

Orange juice

d)

Antacids

88.

Which antifungal drug targets ergosterol synthesis?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

All of the above

89.

Which antiviral is used for herpes simplex infections?

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Oseltamivir

d)

Remdesivir

90.

Zidovudine (AZT) is classified as:

a)

Antifungal

b)

Antiviral (HIV)

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Analgesic

91.

Which vaccine-preventable disease is viral?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Influenza

c)

Leptospirosis

d)

Typhoid

92.

Which immune response is enhanced by vaccines?

a)

Innate

b)

Adaptive

c)

Nonspecific

d)

Inflammatory

93.

Which immunoglobulin is first to respond to infection?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

94.

Which vitamin enhances immune system function?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

95.

Which nursing action is essential before antibiotic administration?

a)

Check temperature

b)

Obtain culture and sensitivity

c)

Give pain relief

d)

Assess pupil reaction

96.

The broadest spectrum antibiotics belong to:

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Carbapenems

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