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Pharmacology Quiz on Antihypertensive Drugs

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Lisinopril?

a)

Blocks Angiotensin II receptor leading to vasodilation

b)

Inhibits ACE, leading to decreased Angiotensin II and aldosterone

c)

Non-selective β and α1 blocker

d)

β1-selective blocker

2.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Losartan?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Bronchospasm

d)

Eye irritation

3.

What is the mnemonic associated with Lisinopril to remember its indication?

a)

"PRIL = Pressure Relief In Lungs"

b)

"SaRans = Angiotensin Receptor block"

c)

"Carves down HR & BP"

d)

"Timolol TIMEs down eye pressure"

4.

Which drug is a β1-selective blocker used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias?

a)

Carvedilol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Propranolol

d)

Timolol

5.

What is a key nursing consideration for patients taking Propranolol?

a)

Monitor BP, potassium, and renal function

b)

Avoid asthma/COPD; monitor HR and BP; taper gradually

c)

Teach punctal occlusion; monitor cardiac patients

d)

Monitor blood glucose; taper slowly

6.

Which of the following drugs is used as an eye drop for glaucoma and ocular hypertension?

a)

Carvedilol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Timolol

d)

Propranolol

7.

What is the adverse effect of Carvedilol that requires monitoring of heart rate and blood pressure?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Eye irritation

d)

Angioedema

8.

What is the mnemonic for Losartan to remember its mechanism of action?

a)

"PRIL = Pressure Relief In Lungs"

b)

"SaRans = Angiotensin Receptor block"

c)

"Carves down HR & BP"

d)

"Timolol TIMEs down eye pressure"

9.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Amlodipine?

a)

Non-DHP CCB → ↓ HR, AV conduction, vasodilation

b)

Dihydropyridine CCB → vasodilation

c)

Blocks Na+/Cl- reabsorption in distal tubule

d)

Loop diuretic → inhibits Na/K/Cl reabsorption

10.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Diltiazem?

a)

Peripheral edema, flushing, hypotension

b)

Bradycardia, AV block, edema, constipation

c)

Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, dehydration

d)

Ototoxicity, dehydration, hypotension

11.

What is the mnemonic associated with Verapamil?

a)

"AmLOWdipine = LOWers BP"

b)

"Diltiazem DILates & slows heart"

c)

"Verapamil VERY constipating"

d)

"Loops Lose everything (water + K+)"

12.

Which drug is indicated for mild edema and hypertension (HTN) and works by blocking Na+/Cl- reabsorption in the distal tubule?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

c)

Furosemide

d)

Diltiazem

13.

What is a key nursing consideration for Furosemide?

a)

Monitor BP, watch for swelling, avoid grapefruit juice

b)

Monitor HR, BP, ECG; avoid in severe HF

c)

Monitor electrolytes, BP, I&O; give in AM

d)

Monitor BP, electrolytes, glucose; give in AM

14.

What is the mnemonic for Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?

a)

"Loops Lose everything (water + K+)"

b)

"AmLOWdipine = LOWers BP"

c)

"THIAZide = sHY K+"

d)

"Diltiazem DILates & slows heart"

15.

Which of the following drugs is a loop diuretic that inhibits Na/K/Cl reabsorption?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Diltiazem

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

d)

Furosemide

16.

What is the primary indication for Verapamil?

a)

HTN, angina, arrhythmias

b)

Edema (HF, renal, hepatic), HTN

c)

HTN, mild edema

d)

HTN, angina, AFib/flutter

17.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Spironolactone?

a)

K⁺-sparing aldosterone antagonist

b)

PDE-5 inhibitor → ↑ cGMP → smooth muscle relaxation

c)

Direct arterial vasodilator

d)

Vasodilator → releases nitric oxide → venodilation

18.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Spironolactone?

a)

Cyanide toxicity

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Reflex tachycardia

d)

Vision changes

19.

What is the mnemonic associated with Nitroglycerin?

a)

"HYDRAlazine = HYDRates arteries open"

b)

"SILly DENtist can’t give NITRO"

c)

"NiTRo = Nitro Tablet Relieves chest pain"

d)

"NitroPRUSS = PRessure Ultra Short acting"

20.

Which drug is used for hypertensive crisis and acute heart failure (HF)?

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Nitroprusside

d)

Nitroglycerin

21.

What is a key nursing consideration for Nitroprusside?

a)

Monitor BP; keep in dark container

b)

IV only; continuous BP monitoring; protect from light

c)

Contraindicated with nitrates; monitor BP

d)

Monitor K⁺, renal function; avoid high K⁺ foods

22.

Which drug is contraindicated with nitrates and requires monitoring of blood pressure?

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Sildenafil

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Nitroprusside

23.

What is the indication for Hydralazine?

a)

Erectile dysfunction (ED)

b)

Hypertensive crisis

c)

HTN, HF (Black patients with nitrates)

d)

Angina, acute coronary syndrome

24.

What is the adverse effect of Sildenafil?

a)

Cyanide toxicity

b)

Lupus-like syndrome

c)

Vision changes

d)

Reflex tachycardia

25.

Which drug has the mnemonic "NitroPRUSS = PRessure Ultra Short acting"?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Nitroprusside

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Sildenafil

26.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Hydralazine?

a)

PDE-5 inhibitor → ↑ cGMP → smooth muscle relaxation

b)

Direct arterial vasodilator

c)

Vasodilator → releases nitric oxide → venodilation

d)

K⁺-sparing aldosterone antagonist

27.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Atorvastatin?

a)

Binds bile acids to increase excretion

b)

Activates PPAR-α to increase lipolysis

c)

Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase to decrease cholesterol synthesis

d)

Inhibits absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine brush border

28.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Cholestyramine?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Constipation

c)

Myalgia

d)

Gallstones

29.

What is the mnemonic associated with Ezetimibe?

a)

"STATIN = Stops Triglycerides And Total cholesterol In Night"

b)

"Chole = CHOLEsterol catcher, Clogs GI"

c)

"ZEE = Easy block of cholesterol Entry"

d)

"FENo-Fat = Finishes Extra triglycerides Now"

30.

Which lipid-lowering agent is used as an adjunct to diet and exercise for homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia?

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Cholestyramine

c)

Ezetimibe

d)

Fenofibrate

31.

What is the primary indication for Fenofibrate?

a)

Hyperlipidemia

b)

Hypertriglyceridemia

c)

Primary hypercholesterolemia

d)

Prevention of cardiovascular disease

32.

Which of the following nursing considerations is associated with Cholestyramine?

a)

Monitor LFTs and CK; take at night; avoid grapefruit

b)

Mix with fluids; monitor GI effects; watch for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies

c)

May be combined with statins; avoid in pregnancy/lactation

d)

Take with meals to improve absorption

33.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Fenofibrate?

a)

Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase to decrease cholesterol synthesis

b)

Activates PPAR-α to increase lipolysis and decrease triglycerides

c)

Binds bile acids to increase excretion

d)

Inhibits absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine brush border

34.

Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with Ezetimibe?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Myalgia

c)

GI upset

d)

Constipation

35.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Niacin (Vitamin B3)?

a)

Inhibits lipolysis, decreases triglycerides (TG), and increases HDL.

b)

Blocks ADP receptors on platelets to prevent platelet aggregation.

c)

Activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin and factor Xa.

d)

Potentiates antithrombin and preferentially inhibits factor Xa.

36.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Niacin (Vitamin B3)?

a)

GI bleeding and ulcers.

b)

Flushing, pruritus, and hyperuricemia.

c)

Bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).

d)

Bleeding and lower risk of HIT.

37.

What is the mnemonic associated with Niacin (Vitamin B3)?

a)

ASA = Anti-Stickin’

b)

CLOPs platelets’ ADP

c)

Niacin = Nice HDL but causes Flush & Sugar/Uric rise

d)

HEP = Helps End Proteases

38.

Which antiplatelet drug irreversibly inhibits COX-1/2, leading to decreased TXA2?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Heparin

d)

Enoxaparin

39.

What is the primary indication for Clopidogrel?

a)

DVT prophylaxis after surgery.

b)

Prevents stroke, MI, and stent thrombosis.

c)

MI and stroke prevention, post-PCI therapy.

d)

Bridging to warfarin in DVT/PE.

40.

What is the mnemonic for Clopidogrel?

a)

ASA = Anti-Stickin’

b)

CLOPs platelets’ ADP

c)

HEP = Helps End Proteases

d)

eNOX = NO Xa

41.

Which anticoagulant activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin and factor Xa?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Heparin

d)

Enoxaparin

42.

What is the primary indication for Enoxaparin (LMWH)?

a)

MI and stroke prevention, post-PCI therapy.

b)

Prevents stroke, MI, and stent thrombosis.

c)

DVT prophylaxis after surgery, PE, and MI.

d)

Bridging to warfarin in DVT/PE.

43.

What is the mnemonic for Enoxaparin (LMWH)?

a)

ASA = Anti-Stickin’

b)

CLOPs platelets’ ADP

c)

HEP = Helps End Proteases

d)

eNOX = NO Xa

44.

What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin as an anticoagulant?

a)

Converts plasminogen to plasmin

b)

Inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing factors II, VII, IX, X

c)

Binds heparin to neutralize its effects

d)

Replenishes Vitamin K to restore clotting factors

45.

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of Alteplase (tPA)?

a)

Skin necrosis

b)

Severe bleeding and intracranial hemorrhage

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Thrombosis

46.

What is the primary use of Protamine sulfate?

a)

Warfarin reversal

b)

Heparin overdose

c)

Rapid reversal of warfarin

d)

Thrombocytopenia treatment

47.

Which antidote is used for rapid reversal of Warfarin in cases of major bleeding or urgent surgery?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

PCC (Kcentra)

d)

Platelets

48.

What is the primary indication for administering Platelets as a blood product?

a)

Aspirin overdose or thrombocytopenia

b)

Warfarin reversal

c)

Heparin overdose

d)

Ischemic stroke

49.

What is the preferred route of administration for Vitamin K when used as a Warfarin antidote?

a)

Intravenous (IV) rapid

b)

Oral, preferred; IV slow

c)

Subcutaneous injection

d)

Intramuscular injection

50.

What is the mnemonic associated with Alteplase (tPA) to help remember its key points?

a)

WAR on Vit K

b)

tPA = Tear Plugs Apart

c)

PROtect vs heparin

d)

PLTs Plug Little Tears

51.

What is a potential complication of Platelet transfusion?

a)

Skin necrosis

b)

Transfusion reactions and alloimmunization

c)

Intracranial hemorrhage

d)

Bradycardia

52.

What is the goal INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy?

a)

1-2

b)

2-3

c)

3-4

d)

4-5

53.

Which of the following is a contraindication for Alteplase (tPA) therapy?

a)

Ischemic stroke

b)

Severe bleeding

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Aspirin overdose

54.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Epoetin Alfa?

a)

Provides elemental iron for hemoglobin synthesis

b)

Stimulates bone marrow to produce RBCs by mimicking erythropoietin

c)

Provides folate needed for DNA synthesis and cell division

d)

Restores B12 needed for RBC production and myelin sheath integrity

55.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of Ferrous Sulfate?

a)

Anemia of CKD

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Sickle cell disease

56.

What is a potential adverse effect of Folic Acid supplementation when used alone?

a)

Bone marrow suppression

b)

Risk of thromboembolism

c)

Can mask B12 deficiency

d)

Hypokalemia

57.

Which vitamin is used to treat pernicious anemia and B12 deficiency caused by malabsorption?

a)

Folic Acid

b)

Cyanocobalamin (B12)

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Ferrous Sulfate

58.

What is the mnemonic for Hydroxyurea, and what does it signify?

a)

EPO = Extra Production of RBCs

b)

IRON = I Run O₂ Now

c)

FOLate = Fetal fOLks

d)

HYDROXY raises HbF

59.

Which drug is associated with the adverse effect of bone marrow suppression, including neutropenia and thrombocytopenia?

a)

Epoetin Alfa

b)

Ferrous Sulfate

c)

Hydroxyurea

d)

Cyanocobalamin (B12)

60.

What nursing consideration is important when administering Ferrous Sulfate?

a)

Monitor Hgb/Hct, BP, and iron status

b)

Give with Vitamin C to enhance absorption

c)

Assess neuro function and monitor potassium levels

d)

Monitor CBC and counsel on contraception

61.

Which drug is indicated for the prevention of neural tube defects during pregnancy?

a)

Epoetin Alfa

b)

Ferrous Sulfate

c)

Folic Acid

d)

Cyanocobalamin (B12)

62.

What is the primary indication for Hydroxyurea?

a)

Chemo-induced anemia

b)

Sickle cell disease and some leukemias

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Megaloblastic anemia

63.

What adverse effect is associated with Epoetin Alfa?

a)

GI upset and dark stools

b)

Risk of thromboembolism and pure red cell aplasia

c)

Hypokalemia and injection site pain

d)

Bone marrow suppression

64.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Oxymetazoline?

a)

Alpha-adrenergic agonist causing vasoconstriction of nasal mucosa

b)

Selective alpha-1 agonist causing vasoconstriction

c)

H1 blocker reducing histamine effects

d)

Glucocorticoid reducing airway inflammation

65.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Phenylephrine?

a)

Oral candidiasis

b)

Reflex bradycardia

c)

Sedation

d)

Epistaxis

66.

What mnemonic is associated with Fluticasone?

a)

OXY-meter tight nose

b)

FINALLY breathe

c)

FLUTe quiets the nose

d)

Doze In Peace

67.

Which drug is indicated for asthma maintenance and COPD (with LABA)?

a)

Oxymetazoline

b)

Budesonide

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Phenylephrine

68.

What nursing consideration is important for Diphenhydramine?

a)

Limit use to 3 days; monitor BP in HTN patients

b)

Avoid in elderly; caution with glaucoma/urinary retention

c)

Rinse mouth after inhaled use; not for acute attacks

d)

Avoid in HTN, glaucoma; monitor BP & HR

69.

Which of the following drugs has sedation as an adverse effect?

a)

Fluticasone

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Budesonide

d)

Phenylephrine

70.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Budesonide?

a)

Alpha-adrenergic agonist causing vasoconstriction of nasal mucosa

b)

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) with anti-inflammatory properties

c)

H1 blocker reducing histamine effects

d)

Selective alpha-1 agonist causing vasoconstriction

71.

Which drug is associated with the mnemonic "Doze In Peace"?

a)

Oxymetazoline

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Budesonide

d)

Phenylephrine

72.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Hydroxyzine?

a)

H1 blocker

b)

Dopamine antagonist

c)

Expectorant

d)

Breaks disulfide bonds in mucus

73.

Which drug is used for vestibular suppression and motion sickness?

a)

Hydroxyzine

b)

Meclizine

c)

Promethazine

d)

Loratadine

74.

What is a nursing consideration for Promethazine?

a)

Avoid alcohol/CNS depressants

b)

Caution in elderly, avoid alcohol

c)

Avoid in children under 2 years; give IM (not IV)

d)

Administer via nebulizer

75.

Which of the following is a 2nd-generation H1 blocker that is non-sedating and safe for the elderly?

a)

Hydroxyzine

b)

Loratadine

c)

Cetirizine

d)

Promethazine

76.

What is the mnemonic for Cetirizine?

a)

HYDRate your itch

b)

Motion Easily Controlled

c)

Ce-TIRE-izine

d)

PRO-ME nausea

77.

Which drug is used to break disulfide bonds in mucus and treat acetaminophen overdose?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Hydroxyzine

d)

Meclizine

78.

What is the primary indication for Guaifenesin?

a)

Allergic rhinitis

b)

Cough with thick mucus

c)

Motion sickness

d)

Acetaminophen overdose

79.

What is a common adverse effect of Acetylcysteine?

a)

Sedation

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Blurred vision

d)

EPS

80.

Which drug has the mnemonic 'Breaks ACHE-y mucus'?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Hydroxyzine

d)

Cetirizine

81.

What is the nursing consideration for Guaifenesin?

a)

Avoid alcohol/CNS depressants

b)

Encourage fluids; monitor cough

c)

Administer via nebulizer

d)

Avoid in children under 2 years

82.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Benzonatate?

a)

NMDA antagonist, sigma-1 agonist

b)

Anesthetizes stretch receptors in lungs

c)

Opioid agonist

d)

Blocks serotonin reuptake

83.

Which antitussive drug is associated with the mnemonic 'DM = Don’t Mix'?

a)

Benzonatate

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Hydrocodone

d)

Codeine

84.

What is a key nursing consideration for Hydrocodone?

a)

Swallow whole; fatal if chewed in kids

b)

Avoid with MAOIs/SSRIs

c)

Monitor respiratory rate, constipation; risk of dependence

d)

Avoid in children due to metabolism into morphine

85.

Which antitussive drug is indicated for mild to moderate pain and cough?

a)

Benzonatate

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Hydrocodone

d)

Codeine

86.

What adverse effects are associated with Dextromethorphan?

a)

Numb mouth/throat, dizziness, sedation

b)

Drowsiness, dizziness, abuse (hallucinations)

c)

Sedation, respiratory depression, constipation

d)

Respiratory depression, constipation, sedation

87.

Which antitussive drug has the mnemonic 'BEE-z = no cough'?

a)

Benzonatate

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Hydrocodone

d)

Codeine

88.

Why should Codeine be avoided in children?

a)

It causes serotonin syndrome.

b)

It is fatal if chewed.

c)

It metabolizes into morphine.

d)

It leads to hallucinations.

89.

What is the primary indication for Dextromethorphan?

a)

Pain relief

b)

Nonproductive cough

c)

Mild to moderate pain

d)

Respiratory depression

90.

Which antitussive drug is an opioid agonist used for pain and cough in combination therapy?

a)

Benzonatate

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Hydrocodone

d)

Codeine

91.

What is a potential adverse effect of Benzonatate?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Numb mouth/throat

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Risk of dependence