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Fundamentals Final Worksheet — Oxygen and Blood Gas Analysis

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a patient presents with PaO2 of 6565 , what would you classify this as?

a)

Mild hypoxemia

b)

Moderate hypoxemia

c)

Severe hypoxemia

d)

Normal oxygenation

2.

If an arterial blood gas analyzer reports a PaO2 of 4545 , what would you consider this?

a)

Mild hypoxemia

b)

Moderate hypoxemia

c)

Severe hypoxemia

d)

Normal oxygenation

3.

Which PaO2 level is considered severe hypoxemia?

a)

Less than 4040

b)

4040 to 5959

c)

6060 to 7979

d)

8080 or higher

4.

If a patient’s oxygen level reads above 100100 , what is this termed and what is the best plan of action?

a)

Hyperoxemia; gradually wean oxygen delivery to lower levels

b)

Hyperoxemia; immediately discontinue all oxygen

c)

Hypoxemia; increase oxygen support

d)

Normoxemia; maintain current oxygen settings

5.

Select the oxygen analyzers most commonly used by respiratory therapists.

a)

Clark electrode

b)

Galvanic fuel cell

c)

Paramagnetic analyzer

d)

Infrared spectrophotometer

6.

You need blood to be analyzed as quickly as possible and have access to a Clark electrode and a galvanic fuel cell. Which analyzer provides the quickest response time?

a)

Clark electrode

b)

Galvanic fuel cell

c)

Paramagnetic analyzer

d)

Pulse oximeter

7.

A Clark electrode is not working properly. What is the first action you should take to try to fix it?

a)

Check or replace the batteries

b)

Change the sensor and recalibrate

c)

Send the device for repair or replace it

d)

Increase the patient’s oxygen setting

8.

A galvanic fuel cell does not require batteries because it uses a chemical reaction to power itself. If it did have batteries, why would they be used?

a)

To power the chemical reaction

b)

To run an internal sample pump

c)

To power alarms that indicate low oxygen

d)

To heat the sensor element

9.

How would you properly recalibrate an oxygen analyzer?

a)

Expose to 21%21\% oxygen (room air), then to 100%100\% oxygen

b)

Expose first to 100%100\% oxygen, then to 21%21\% oxygen

c)

Expose only to room air

d)

Expose only to pure nitrogen

10.

When using an oxygen analyzer, the patient is on 70%70\% oxygen and the analyzer reads 67%67\% . Would this be considered accurate?

a)

Yes, it is within the ± 2%2\% tolerance

b)

No, it is outside the ± 2%2\% tolerance

11.

When using an oxygen analyzer, the patient is on 70%70\% oxygen and the analyzer reads 72%72\% . Would this be considered accurate?

a)

Yes, it is within the ± 2%2\% tolerance

b)

No, it is outside the ± 2%2\% tolerance

12.

What is considered the gold standard for evaluating and identifying gas exchange and acid–base balance?

a)

Arterial blood gas (ABG)

b)

Pulse oximetry

c)

Capnography

d)

Transcutaneous oxygen monitoring

13.

If you are not able to obtain a blood gas from an artery, where else might you be able to obtain it?

a)

Capillary sample

b)

Venous sample

c)

Oral swab

d)

Exhaled breath condensate

14.

Where is the best place to stick when collecting an arterial blood gas?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Ulnar artery

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Femoral artery

15.

Why is the radial artery considered the best place to obtain a blood gas? Select all that apply.

a)

It is closer to the surface, bigger, and easier to palpate

b)

It is away from veins and nerves

c)

The ulnar artery provides good collateral circulation backup

d)

It is deep and hard to palpate

e)

It is usually near a surgical shunt

16.

Where is an arterial blood usually taken in emergent situations?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Ulnar artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

Brachial artery

17.

What does an ABG determine in a patient? Select all that apply.

a)

How well the patient is ventilating

b)

How well the patient is oxygenating

c)

The patient’s acid–base balance

d)

The patient’s hematocrit level

18.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine the patient’s acid–base balance?

a)

SaO2

b)

PaCO2

c)

pH

d)

PaO2

19.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine how well the patient is ventilating?

a)

SaO2

b)

PaCO2

c)

pH

d)

PaO2

20.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine how well the patient is oxygenating?

a)

SaO2

b)

PaCO2

c)

pH

d)

PaO2

21.

What would be considered contraindications when taking an arterial blood gas? Select all that apply.

a)

Negative Allen test

b)

Surgical shunt

c)

Positive Allen test

d)

Patient consent obtained

22.

What can cause a hematoma or hemorrhage? Select all that apply.

a)

Use of anticoagulants (e.g., heparin)

b)

Constant flow of bleeding from a damaged blood vessel

c)

Inadequate collateral circulation

d)

Tight tourniquet alone

23.

When obtaining an ABG, how much blood should you collect for the sample?

a)

0.5 mL to 1 mL

b)

2 mL to 3 mL

c)

5 mL

d)

10 mL

24.

In some situations it is okay to recap a used needle.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

You go to collect an ABG sample and get dark, slow-moving blood in the syringe. What has most likely happened?

a)

This is normal; finish collecting the sample

b)

The patient is on a blood thinner so this is normal

c)

You are in a vein, not an artery

d)

The patient has a high heart rate

26.

If you run an ABG sample that has air in it through an analyzer, what result can you expect?

a)

Low pH

b)

High PaCO2

c)

Cannot predict results

d)

High PaO2

27.

A healthy patient just ran up the stairs and is out of breath. How long should you wait before taking their ABG?

a)

1 minute

b)

5 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

30 minutes

28.

A COPD patient just ran up the stairs and is out of breath. How long should you wait before taking their ABG?

a)

5 to 10 minutes

b)

10 to 15 minutes

c)

20 to 30 minutes

d)

45 to 60 minutes

29.

If an ABG is not placed on ice and takes a long time to get to the lab, what result would you expect?

a)

Increased PaCO2

b)

Decreased PaCO2

c)

Increased PaO2

d)

No change in blood gases

30.

What is point of care for ABGs and what can it help reduce? Select all that apply.

a)

A bedside blood analyzer that allows testing as soon as the sample is collected

b)

Helps reduce turnaround time

c)

Helps reduce labeling issues

d)

Increases transport time to the lab

e)

Eliminates the need for trained staff

31.

On a pulse oximeter the alarm should be set to go off if the pulse oximeter reads below ____%.

a)

85%85\%

b)

88%88\%

c)

90%90\%

d)

92%92\%

32.

Do you need an order for oxygen? Why or why not?

a)

No, oxygen is considered basic comfort care

b)

Yes, because oxygen is considered a drug and medical gas

c)

No, oxygen can be given without physician oversight

d)

Yes, but only for patients in the ICU

33.

Do you need an order to do an ABG?

a)

Yes, an order is required

b)

No, it is part of routine vital signs

c)

Only if the patient is on a ventilator

d)

An order is optional if the patient consents

34.

Which description correctly distinguishes PAO2 from PaO2?

a)

PAO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli; PaO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries

b)

PAO2 is oxygen saturation in the arteries; PaO2 is oxygen saturation in the alveoli

c)

PAO2 and PaO2 are the same measurement taken at different times

d)

PAO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in venous blood; PaO2 is partial pressure in capillaries

35.

Which thresholds indicate hypoxemia?

a)

PaO2 less than 6060 mm Hg

b)

SaO2 less than 90%90\%

c)

PaO2 greater than 8080 mm Hg

d)

SaO2 greater than 94%94\%

36.

If you administer too much oxygen to a neonate, what could this cause?

a)

Bronchiolitis

b)

Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Neonatal jaundice

37.

What kind of room would be more at risk for a fire hazard?

a)

Operating room with high FiO2 present

b)

General medical ward

c)

Outdoor triage area

d)

Radiology waiting room

38.

What is the main factor that changes FiO2 for patients using a nasal cannula?

a)

Cannula color

b)

How the patient is breathing (e.g., mouth breathing lowers FiO2)

c)

Patient’s weight

d)

Age of the patient

39.

A high flow nasal cannula is more fixed than a low flow nasal cannula.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Give an example of devices corresponding to high-flow, low-flow, and reservoir oxygen transport systems.

a)

High-flow nasal cannula

b)

Nasal cannula (low-flow)

c)

Simple mask (reservoir)

d)

Noninvasive ventilator circuit

41.

How do you check the specific FiO2 output?

a)

Use an oxygen analyzer

b)

Use a Clark electrode (galvanic fuel cell)

c)

Estimate from the flowmeter alone

d)

Visual inspection of patient color

42.

If a patient is on sedation while using a nasal cannula, would the patient breathe higher or lower FiO2, and why?

a)

Lower FiO2 because slower breathing pulls in more room air

b)

Higher FiO2 because slower breathing entrains less room air

c)

No change in FiO2 because sedation does not affect entrainment

d)

Lower FiO2 because sedation increases respiratory rate

43.

What is the FiO2 range used for nasal cannulas?

a)

10%10\%20%20\%

b)

24%24\%44%44\%

c)

40%40\%60%60\%

d)

60%60\%80%80\%

44.

What is the appropriate liter flow range for patients using a nasal cannula?

a)

0.50.5 L to 22 L

b)

11 L to 66 L

c)

66 L to 1010 L

d)

1010 L to 1515 L

45.

If your patient is on 55 L nasal cannula and is experiencing dried upper airways, what action might the RT take?

a)

Decrease the flow to 22 L

b)

Add a humidifier to the oxygen delivery

c)

Switch to room air

d)

Apply a nonrebreather mask

46.

If your patient is on 44 L nasal cannula, what can you approximate the FiO2 to be close to?

a)

28%28\%

b)

32%32\%

c)

36%36\%

d)

40%40\%

47.

If your patient is on humidified nasal cannula and the humidifier is making a loud whistling noise, what problem could you expect?

a)

Humidifier chamber is empty

b)

Oxygen line is pinched, triggering the pop-off valve

c)

Cannula prongs are reversed

d)

Flowmeter is set too low for humidification

48.

What is the liter flow range for a simple mask?

a)

11 L to 44 L

b)

55 L to 1010 L

c)

1010 L to 1515 L

d)

1515 L to 2020 L

49.

What must a simple mask’s minimum flow be and why?

a)

At least 22 L to prevent dryness

b)

At least 55 L to flush out CO2\mathrm{CO_2} and prevent rebreathing

c)

At least 88 L to reach 100%100\% FiO2

d)

No minimum; any flow is acceptable

50.

How long does it take for a patient with healthy lungs to achieve a normal steady state after being out of breath, and how long does it take a patient with lung disease or a chronic lung problem to achieve steady state?

a)

Healthy lungs: about 55 minutes; lung disease: 20203030 minutes

b)

Healthy lungs: about 11 minute; lung disease: 55 minutes

c)

Healthy lungs: about 1010 minutes; lung disease: 6060 minutes

d)

Healthy lungs: about 3030 minutes; lung disease: 22 hours

51.

How many valves are on a partial rebreather?

a)

None

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Three

52.

How many valves are on a nonrebreather?

a)

None

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Three

53.

What percent of FiO2 is the patient getting with a nonrebreather?

a)

60%60\%

b)

80%80\%

c)

100%100\%

d)

Variable depending on breathing pattern

54.

If the bag on a nonrebreather or partial rebreather is not inflated and is small and crumbled, what action might the RT take?

a)

Remove the mask and use room air

b)

Turn up the oxygen flow until the bag is inflated (a little deflation on inspiration is normal)

c)

Decrease the oxygen flow to reduce noise

d)

Switch immediately to mechanical ventilation

55.

What O2 delivery device is used to achieve specific FiO2 values?

a)

Venturi mask

b)

Nasal cannula

c)

Simple face mask

d)

Nonrebreather mask

56.

When using a venturi mask, if one of the ports becomes blocked, what happens to the FiO2?

a)

It increases because less air dilutes the oxygen

b)

It decreases because more room air enters

c)

It remains the same

d)

It varies randomly without trend

57.

What strategy do you use to calculate the Air to Oxygen ratio?

a)

Magic box

b)

Alveolar gas equation

c)

Boyle’s law

d)

Haldane transformation

58.

Using the magic box method, what is the Air to O2 ratio for an FiO2 of 40%?

a)

3.2:1

b)

2:1

c)

1.7:1

d)

4:1

59.

If your patient is on 50% FiO2 and 4 L/min flow, what is the total flow of this patient based on the worksheet’s calculation?

a)

0.67 L/min

b)

6.7 L/min

c)

10.8 L/min

d)

14.0 L/min

60.

What is the oxyhood used for and what benefit does it provide?

a)

Deliver controlled oxygen to infants without a face mask

b)

Provide high-flow oxygen to adults with COPD

c)

Transport ventilated patients during MRI

d)

Administer anesthesia gases in the operating room

61.

Which reasons indicate a need for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? Select all that apply.

a)

Diving accident

b)

Reduction of gas bubbles

c)

Wound care

d)

Ear trauma from pressure changes

e)

Asthma exacerbation

62.

What color is an O2 cylinder?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Brown

63.

What color is a medical air cylinder?

a)

Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Black

d)

Brown

64.

What is the E tank factor?

a)

0.28

b)

0.16

c)

1.7

d)

3.14

65.

What is the H and K tank factor?

a)

3.14

b)

0.28

c)

1.0

d)

2.5

66.

How can you tell how much gas is left in a tank?

a)

Read the pressure gauge

b)

Tap the tank and listen

c)

Weigh the tank

d)

Check the regulator size

67.

How do you calculate how much time is left before a tank is empty?

a)

Tank factor × pressure gauge ÷ liter flow

b)

Pressure gauge ÷ tank factor × liter flow

c)

Liter flow × pressure gauge ÷ tank factor

d)

Tank factor + pressure gauge + liter flow

68.

For an Oxygen E tank at 1000 psi with a flow of 3 L/min, how long until the tank is empty?

a)

93 minutes

b)

47 minutes

c)

155 minutes

d)

31 minutes

69.

For an Oxygen H tank at 2000 psi with a flow of 5 L/min, when will the tank need to be replaced with a full one?

a)

1,256 minutes

b)

620 minutes

c)

93 minutes

d)

21 minutes

70.

How pure must O2 tanks be before they can be used under FDA requirements?

a)

99% pure oxygen

b)

95% pure oxygen

c)

90% pure oxygen

d)

100% pure oxygen

71.

What color are helium tanks?

a)

Brown

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Black

72.

What color are Heliox tanks?

a)

Brown and green

b)

Green and yellow

c)

Blue and white

d)

Black and silver

73.

Why would a patient need heliox to be used?

a)

To lower gas density and improve flow past upper airway obstruction

b)

To increase anesthetic potency during surgery

c)

To humidify airways better than oxygen

d)

To reduce alveolar dead space in emphysema

74.

What are appropriate precautions for storing gas tanks? Select all that apply.

a)

Post no‑smoking signs in the area

b)

Secure and chain tanks so they do not fall

c)

Allow the fill to vary within about 10% of the labeled amount

d)

Store next to heat sources to prevent cooling

e)

Lay tanks horizontally to save space

75.

When getting a new gas tank, what should the RT do before use?

a)

Crack the valve briefly to clear debris

b)

Fully open the valve immediately

c)

Purge the line by turning on the regulator to maximum

d)

Shake the tank to settle contents

76.

What are zone valves used for in hospitals?

a)

Stopping gas flow to specific areas without shutting down the entire facility

b)

Increasing line pressure for high‑flow devices

c)

Mixing medical gases centrally

d)

Measuring wall‑outlet pressures

77.

What is the minimum working pressure for gas that comes through hospital walls?

a)

50 psi

b)

20 psi

c)

80 psi

d)

100 psi

78.

What is the most important factor of large volume jet nebulizers?

a)

Temperature (cooled or heated)

b)

Particle charge

c)

Tank color

d)

Patient age

79.

For a patient with upper airway swelling on a large volume jet nebulizer, which temperature setting is appropriate?

a)

Cooled aerosol

b)

Heated aerosol

c)

Room‑temperature dry gas

d)

Humidified oxygen without aerosol

80.

If a patient with a bypassed upper airway is on a large-volume jet nebulizer, should the nebulizer be cooled or heated?

a)

Cooled

b)

Heated

81.

For a patient using a T-piece trach collar, should the oxygen be heated or cooled?

a)

Heated

b)

Cooled

82.

What is the most important factor for humidification?

a)

Temperature

b)

Surface area

c)

Time of contact

d)

Thermal mass

83.

Which factors affect humidification? Select all that apply.

a)

Temperature

b)

Surface area

c)

Time of contact

d)

Thermal mass

84.

Which are humidification problems? Select all that apply.

a)

Condensation buildup

b)

Improper conditioning of gas

c)

Cross contamination

d)

Increased humidity improves airway clearance

85.

What is the tank factor for an 80:20 Heliox tank?

a)

1.4

b)

1.6

c)

1.8

d)

2.0

86.

What is the tank factor for a 70:30 Heliox tank?

a)

1.4

b)

1.6

c)

1.8

d)

2.0

87.

How do you calculate the actual flow on a Heliox tank?

a)

Liter flow × tank factor

b)

Liter flow ÷ tank factor

c)

Tank size × liter flow

d)

Tank factor ÷ liter flow

88.

A patient is on an 80:20 Heliox tank at a flow of 3 L/min. What is the actual flow?

a)

3.0 L/min

b)

4.2 L/min

c)

5.4 L/min

d)

6.0 L/min

89.

A patient is on 70:30 Heliox with a liter flow of 2 L/min. What is the actual flow?

a)

2.6 L/min

b)

3.2 L/min

c)

3.6 L/min

d)

4.0 L/min

90.

Which formula converts Fahrenheit to Celsius?

a)

(F − 32) ÷ 1.8

b)

(F × 1.8) + 32

c)

(F ÷ 1.8) + 32

d)

(F − 32) × 1.8

91.

Which formula converts Celsius to Fahrenheit?

a)

(C − 32) ÷ 1.8

b)

(C × 1.8) + 32

c)

(C ÷ 1.8) + 32

d)

(C × 1.8) − 32

92.

What is 50 degrees Fahrenheit in Celsius?

a)

1010 degrees Celsius

b)

2020 degrees Celsius

c)

3030 degrees Celsius

d)

55 degrees Celsius

93.

What is 20 degrees Celsius in Fahrenheit?

a)

6060 degrees Fahrenheit

b)

6464 degrees Fahrenheit

c)

6868 degrees Fahrenheit

d)

7272 degrees Fahrenheit

94.

What is capillary action?

a)

Movement of fluid up against gravity in narrow tubes

b)

Downward flow of fluid due to gravity

c)

Mixing of two fluids of different densities

d)

Evaporation of fluid from an open surface

95.

Which are examples of capillary action? Select all that apply.

a)

Capillary sticks

b)

Aerosols in nebulizers where fluid in the cup moves up into the air stream

c)

Condensation forming on the outside of a tank

d)

Bulk flow through large-diameter tubing