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2121 Exam 1 OT pt.4

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A child has a nosebleed after playing outside in winter. Which factor most likely triggered the epistaxis?

a)

Low humidity drying the nasal mucosa

b)

Hypercalcemia causing fragile capillaries

c)

Excess potassium intake from sports drinks

d)

Increased intraocular pressure from crying

2.

A client with COPD reports worsening shortness of breath. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Sudden excruciating eye pain and fixed pupil

b)

Chronic productive cough with exertional dyspnea

c)

High fever with nuchal rigidity

d)

Inspiratory stridor with drooling

3.

A post-thyroidectomy client reports tingling around the mouth and hand spasms. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

4.

A client with suspected fluid volume deficit has BP 86/50, HR 132, and cool clammy skin. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Restrict fluids to prevent third spacing

b)

Give a loop diuretic and monitor urine output

c)

Delay IV access until orthostatics are rechecked

d)

Administer oxygen and prepare for isotonic fluid resuscitation per orders

5.

Which scenario is the most classic cause of metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Prolonged vomiting or NG suction

b)

Diarrhea for 3 days

c)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

d)

Septic shock with lactic acidosis

6.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate becomes lethargic with decreased deep tendon reflexes and hypotension. Which medication should the nurse anticipate as the antidote?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Tolvaptan

d)

Dextrose with insulin

7.

A post-op client becomes increasingly confused and tachypneic. The provider orders ABGs. What is the best reason ABGs are obtained?

a)

To identify the organism causing infection

b)

To evaluate airway anatomy for obstruction

c)

To assess oxygenation and acid–base balance

d)

To measure lung volumes and airway resistance

8.

A client asks what test confirms obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which response is correct?

a)

Spirometry

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

Throat culture

d)

Polysomnography

9.

A client reports new floaters and “a curtain” over vision. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Treat as urgent and prepare for prompt ophthalmic evaluation (possible retinal detachment)

b)

Apply warm compresses and reassess tomorrow

c)

Recommend oral antihistamines

d)

Reassure this is expected with aging

10.

ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52, HCO3− 25. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

11.

An older adult says, “Everyone mumbles.” Which change is most consistent with presbycusis?

a)

Conductive hearing loss from cerumen only

b)

Sudden hearing loss with fever and ear pain

c)

Age-related sensorineural loss (high-frequency, gradual)

d)

Acute vestibular neuritis

12.

Which best explains primary open-angle glaucoma pathophysiology?

a)

Sudden complete blockage of aqueous outflow

b)

Excess tear production increases IOP

c)

Infection rapidly scars the cornea

d)

Decreased aqueous outflow through the trabecular meshwork increases IOP

13.

A client’s sodium is 118 mEq/L and they are confused. What is the safest priority nursing action?

a)

Initiate seizure precautions and prepare for ordered hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)

b)

Encourage free-water intake

c)

Administer D5W rapidly

d)

Give potassium chloride IV push

14.

During a Rinne test, bone conduction is heard longer than air conduction on the right ear. What does this suggest?

a)

Normal hearing

b)

Right conductive hearing loss

c)

Left sensorineural hearing loss

d)

Bilateral normal hearing

15.

A child with suspected Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate?

a)

CT scan of sinuses

b)

Tympanometry

c)

Throat culture or rapid antigen test

d)

Bronchoscopy

16.

Post-tonsillectomy, which finding is most concerning for hemorrhage?

a)

Mild sore throat

b)

White fibrin patches at the site

c)

Decreased appetite

d)

Frequent swallowing and throat clearing

17.

A client reports episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in one ear. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Ménière’s disease

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Otitis externa

d)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

18.

A client in an acute asthma attack needs rapid symptom relief. Which medication is the best rescue choice?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Albuterol

c)

Fluticasone

d)

Salmeterol

19.

A COPD client has thick secretions. Which medication best supports thinning bronchial secretions?

a)

Oseltamivir

b)

Timolol

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Brimonidine

20.

A client's potassium is 6.8 mEq/L with peaked T waves. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate FIRST to stabilize the cardiac membrane?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Kayexalate

c)

Regular insulin with dextrose

d)

IV calcium gluconate

21.

After total thyroidectomy, which assessment finding most strongly supports hypocalcemia?

a)

Perioral tingling and carpopedal spasm

b)

Hypertension and bounding pulses

c)

Crackles and JVD

d)

Dry mucous membranes and thirst

22.

Which client has the highest risk for metabolic acidosis due to bicarbonate loss?

a)

Persistent vomiting

b)

Diarrhea for 3 days

c)

NG suction

d)

Loop diuretic therapy

23.

In Ménière’s disease, what best explains the vertigo and hearing changes?

a)

Cerumen blockage in the ear canal

b)

Tympanic membrane rupture

c)

Increased endolymph pressure disrupts balance/hearing

d)

Decreased aqueous humor outflow

24.

Which meal choice best fits a low-potassium diet teaching plan?

a)

Baked potato with spinach

b)

Orange juice and banana

c)

Tomato soup and beans

d)

White rice with grilled chicken and green beans

25.

A client has potassium 2.9 mEq/L. Which statement by a new nurse requires correction?

a)

“We can give IV potassium by IV push if the level is critical.”

b)

“We should place the client on cardiac monitoring.”

c)

“We should monitor for ileus and muscle weakness.”

d)

“We’ll recheck potassium after replacement.”

26.

A client is receiving diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis. Which adverse effect should the nurse emphasize?

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Sedation and dry mouth

c)

Increased urine output

d)

Hyperglycemia

27.

Montelukast is most effective for which condition?

a)

Acute asthma attack

b)

Emergency bronchospasm

c)

Chronic asthma/allergic rhinitis maintenance

d)

Bacterial pneumonia

28.

Cromolyn sodium prevents allergic symptoms by which mechanism?

a)

Beta stimulation

b)

Histamine receptor blockade

c)

Systemic immune suppression

d)

Preventing mast cell mediator release

29.

Which patient should avoid systemic decongestants like pseudoephedrine/phenylephrine?

a)

Patient with hypertension

b)

Patient with anemia

c)

Patient with eczema

d)

Patient with iron deficiency

30.

Fluticasone nasal spray works primarily by:

a)

Immediate vasoconstriction

b)

Local anti-inflammatory action

c)

Rapid bronchodilation

d)

Systemic immunosuppression

31.

Albuterol is classified as a:

a)

Controller medication

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Inhaled steroid

d)

Rescue medication

32.

A common adverse effect of albuterol is:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Tremors and tachycardia

d)

Severe constipation

33.

Ipratropium works by:

a)

Blocking acetylcholine in the airways (anticholinergic)

b)

Stimulating beta receptors

c)

Neutralizing stomach acid

d)

Increasing respiratory drive

34.

Ipratropium is often used in combination with:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Short-acting beta agonists

c)

Antivirals

d)

Proton pump inhibitors

35.

Long-acting beta agonists such as salmeterol should:

a)

Be used alone for asthma control

b)

Replace rescue inhalers

c)

Be used PRN during acute attacks

d)

Be combined with inhaled corticosteroids for asthma (not used alone)

36.

Acetylcysteine helps patients by:

a)

Suppressing cough reflex

b)

Reducing fever

c)

Improving appetite

d)

Breaking down thick mucus

37.

Which lab value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving theophylline?

a)

Serum drug levels

b)

INR

c)

Sodium

d)

Calcium

38.

Broad-spectrum antibiotics are most appropriate when:

a)

Symptoms are mild

b)

The organism is confirmed and sensitivities are known

c)

Viral infection is suspected

d)

Culture results are pending and organism is unknown

39.

Rimantadine is used to treat:

a)

RSV

b)

Influenza A

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Strep throat

40.

Modafinil is prescribed for patients with obstructive sleep apnea primarily for:

a)

Treating airway obstruction

b)

Eliminating apnea events

c)

Replacing CPAP

d)

Reducing daytime sleepiness

41.

Which medication can be given to a child with tonsillitis who is allergic to penicillin?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Penicillin VK

d)

Piperacillin–tazobactam

42.

Which medication is considered first-line antiviral (within 24–48 hr) for influenza A & B?

a)

Palivizumab

b)

Guaifenesin

c)

Oseltamivir

d)

Amoxicillin

43.

Oseltamivir is most effective when started:

a)

Only if hospitalized

b)

After fever resolves

c)

At the end of illness

d)

Within 24–48 hours of symptom onset

44.

Nirsevimab is best described as:

a)

A monoclonal antibody

b)

A live vaccine

c)

A broad-spectrum antibiotic

d)

A decongestant

45.

The primary purpose of nirsevimab is to:

a)

Treat RSV infection

b)

Prevent RSV-related lower respiratory disease

c)

Treat influenza

d)

Treat bacterial pneumonia

46.

During PRBC transfusion, which IV fluid is appropriate to run with blood?

a)

D5W

b)

Lactated Ringers

c)

0.9% normal saline only

d)

0.45% normal saline

47.

After obtaining PRBCs from the blood bank, blood must typically be started within:

a)

10 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

2 hours

48.

A client develops back pain, fever, chills, and dark urine during a transfusion. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Stop the transfusion, keep line open with NS, and notify provider/blood bank

b)

Slow the transfusion and reassess

c)

Give acetaminophen and continue

d)

Switch to platelets

49.

A client has bleeding with abnormal coagulation factors. Which product is most appropriate?

a)

Albumin

b)

Fresh frozen plasma

c)

PRBCs

d)

Platelets

50.

A client with severe hyponatremia is at highest risk for which complication?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Polyuria

c)

Seizures

d)

Constipation

51.

Sodium 152 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Give 3% NaCl rapidly

b)

Encourage hypotonic fluids as prescribed and monitor neuro status

c)

Give sodium tablets

d)

Restrict all fluids

52.

Potassium 2.8 mEq/L and weak thready pulse. Which intervention is safest?

a)

Replace KCl diluted via pump; never IV push

b)

IV push potassium for fastest effect

c)

Hold potassium and give Kayexalate

d)

Discharge after giving a banana

53.

Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. Which order best supports shifting K+ from ECF into ICF?

a)

Insulin with dextrose

b)

Kayexalate

c)

Potassium chloride infusion

d)

Oral potassium

54.

A client with hyperkalemia has peaked T waves. Which action is essential?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Continuous cardiac monitoring

c)

Encourage high-potassium foods

d)

Restrict oxygen

55.

A client with suspected fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding best supports hypovolemia?

a)

Bounding pulse

b)

JVD

c)

Crackles

d)

Tachycardia with orthostatic hypotension

56.

Which complication is the biggest immediate threat in hypovolemic shock?

a)

Poor tissue perfusion and impaired oxygenation

b)

Hearing loss

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Tonsil bleeding

57.

Which vasopressor is commonly used for shock support after fluids (as ordered)?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Timolol

d)

Acetylcysteine

58.

A client has suspected fluid volume excess. Which lab/marker supports heart failure involvement?

a)

Low PaCO2

b)

Low potassium

c)

Elevated BNP

d)

Low sodium only

59.

A client with fluid volume excess has crackles and JVD. What teaching is most appropriate?

a)

Increase sodium intake

b)

Encourage 3–4 L fluids daily

c)

Avoid daily weights

d)

Fluid restriction and sodium restriction as ordered + daily weights

60.

A post-op client on opioids becomes drowsy with shallow respirations. What acid–base imbalance is most likely?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

61.

A client with COPD is on oxygen. Which order matches cautious COPD management?

a)

15 L NRB continuously

b)

2–4 L NC or Venturi mask as prescribed/titrated to target SpO2

c)

No oxygen ever

d)

Room air only regardless of saturation

62.

Which finding is most consistent with late-stage COPD chest x-ray changes?

a)

Pleural effusion only

b)

Lobar consolidation only

c)

Flattened diaphragm from hyperinflation

d)

Enlarged tonsils

63.

A client has COPD with cor pulmonale. What does cor pulmonale mean?

a)

Left-sided HF from valve disease

b)

Sudden airway collapse during sleep

c)

Acute hemolytic reaction

d)

Right-sided heart failure related to increased pulmonary pressures

64.

A client with OSA says, “So CPAP is like a constant air splint?” Which response is best?

a)

Yes—continuous pressure helps prevent airway collapse during sleep

b)

No—CPAP treats lung infection

c)

No—CPAP is only diagnostic

d)

Yes—CPAP increases mucus production

65.

Which OSA teaching statement shows correct understanding?

a)

Sleeping flat on my back always prevents apnea

b)

Alcohol at night can worsen my apnea

c)

Antibiotics fix OSA

d)

OSA only happens with pneumonia

66.

Which finding is most typical of nighttime OSA?

a)

Sudden severe eye pain and vomiting

b)

Bright red bleeding after tonsillectomy

c)

Loud snoring with pauses ≥10 sec followed by a loud snort

d)

Wheezing only with exercise

67.

A client has suspected glaucoma but says, “My eyes don’t hurt.” Which glaucoma type most fits slow, painless progression?

a)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Hordeolum

d)

Primary open-angle glaucoma

68.

Which medication class lowers IOP and can cause systemic bradycardia/bronchospasm?

a)

Beta-adrenergic blockers (e.g., timolol)

b)

Mucolytics (e.g., acetylcysteine)

c)

Antivirals (e.g., oseltamivir)

d)

Leukotriene modifiers (e.g., montelukast)

69.

A client with open-angle glaucoma is prescribed acetazolamide. What is its purpose?

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps lower IOP

c)

Mast cell stabilization

d)

Antiviral therapy

70.

A child with epistaxis is actively bleeding. Which action is best?

a)

Tilt head back and swallow blood

b)

Blow the nose forcefully to clear clots

c)

Sit upright, lean forward, and pinch the soft part of the nose

d)

Lie flat and place head lower than heart

71.

A child with confirmed strep throat asks when they can return to school after starting antibiotics. What teaching is most appropriate?

a)

Only after finishing the entire course

b)

Immediately after the first dose

c)

Only after a repeat culture is negative

d)

After 24 hours of antibiotics if afebrile and improving

72.

Post-tonsillectomy, which drink choice should be avoided initially?

a)

Red-colored liquids (harder to detect bleeding)

b)

Cool water

c)

Ice chips

d)

Clear non-red popsicle

73.

A client with Ménière’s disease asks what lifestyle change helps most. Best answer?

a)

Increase caffeine intake

b)

Low-sodium diet to reduce inner ear fluid shifts

c)

High-potassium diet

d)

High-sodium diet

74.

A client with vertigo is prescribed meclizine. What is the main goal?

a)

Cure Ménière’s disease permanently

b)

Treat bacterial pneumonia

c)

Reduce dizziness/vertigo symptoms

d)

Lower intraocular pressure

75.

A client with asthma is prescribed salmeterol. Which statement requires immediate correction?

a)

I’ll use it daily to prevent symptoms

b)

I’ll still keep my rescue inhaler

c)

It’s not for sudden attacks

d)

I can use it alone for asthma control without steroids

76.

A client with asthma is prescribed theophylline. Which finding is most concerning for toxicity?

a)

Tachycardia and restlessness

b)

Mild dry mouth

c)

Slight nasal congestion

d)

Temporary hoarseness

77.

A client with pneumonia is about to receive the first antibiotic dose. What is the best nursing action when possible?

a)

Delay antibiotics until fever resolves

b)

Obtain ordered cultures (sputum/blood) first

c)

Start antihistamines first

d)

Encourage fluids but skip cultures

78.

An older adult has pneumonia but no fever and is suddenly confused. Best interpretation?

a)

Confusion rules out pneumonia

b)

Confusion proves influenza only

c)

Confusion can be an early sign of hypoxia in older adults

d)

Confusion means stroke only

79.

A client with influenza symptoms began 18 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Guaifenesin only

c)

Diphenhydramine only

d)

Oseltamivir

80.

Which diagnostic study best evaluates conductive vs sensorineural hearing loss by measuring hearing thresholds?

a)

Audiometry

b)

Bronchoscopy

c)

ABG

d)

Mediastinoscopy

81.

Tympanometry is primarily used to assess:

a)

Middle ear pressure and tympanic membrane compliance

b)

Cochlear hair cell function

c)

Auditory cortex processing

d)

Nasopharyngeal patency

82.

Which medication is most directly used to break down thick mucus in COPD care?

a)

Timolol

b)

Tolvaptan

c)

Acetylcysteine

d)

3% NaCl

83.

A client with hypokalemia asks what food is high in potassium. Best answer?

a)

White rice

b)

Apples

c)

Cabbage

d)

Potatoes

84.

A client on a low-potassium diet asks which snack is safest.

a)

Apple slices

b)

Banana

c)

Orange juice

d)

Baked potato chips

85.

A client has metabolic alkalosis from vomiting. Which electrolyte disturbance often co-exists?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypernatremia

86.

A nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium. Which action is required?

a)

Give IV push for fastest effect

b)

Mix KCl into PRBC tubing

c)

Use an infusion pump and dilute; never IV push/bolus

d)

Run wide open to finish quickly

87.

A client has hypernatremia and is restless with twitching. Which complication is most urgent to prevent?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Excess secretions

d)

Seizures

88.

Which teaching is safest for a client with glaucoma?

a)

Report halos around lights and worsening peripheral vision changes

b)

Stop drops when symptoms improve

c)

Take OTC decongestants freely

d)

Skip follow-up visits if pain is absent

89.

A client has angle-closure glaucoma symptoms (severe eye pain, N/V, halos, red eye). Priority action?

a)

Reassure and schedule routine follow-up

b)

Treat as an emergency and prepare for rapid pressure-lowering interventions

c)

Apply warm compresses and discharge

d)

Give guaifenesin and reassess

90.

With major fluid loss, what is the best concept of where fluid is pulled from to support circulation?

a)

Fluid loss only occurs from the lungs

b)

Fluid loss is always isolated to plasma only

c)

Fluid shifts can pull from intracellular fluid (ICF) as the body tries to maintain circulation

d)

Fluid loss only affects calcium levels

91.

Which transfusion reaction is most associated with fever and chills WITHOUT hemolysis?

a)

Acute hemolytic reaction

b)

Anaphylactic reaction

c)

TRALI

d)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

92.

A client develops dyspnea, crackles, and JVD during transfusion. Which reaction is most likely?

a)

Circulatory overload (TACO)

b)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

c)

Acute hemolytic reaction

d)

Anaphylaxis

93.

Which action is correct if a transfusion reaction is suspected?

a)

Document after the blood is complete

b)

Stop transfusion and keep IV open with 0.9% NS using new tubing

c)

Flush the blood with LR

d)

Increase transfusion rate to finish quickly

94.

A client with COPD asks why they’re encouraged to drink fluids (if not contraindicated). Best answer?

a)

Fluids cure emphysema

b)

Fluids increase mucus thickness

c)

Hydration helps thin secretions so they’re easier to cough out

d)

Fluids replace alveoli

95.

A client with suspected OSA says, "My CO2 rises during episodes." Why?

a)

Hyperventilation removes too much CO2

b)

Mucus causes CO2 to be exhaled faster

c)

CPAP causes CO2 production

d)

Airflow obstruction decreases ventilation → CO2 builds up

96.

Which finding best supports fluid volume excess rather than deficit?

a)

Bounding pulse with crackles/pulmonary congestion

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Dry mucous membranes and thirst

d)

Concentrated urine only

97.

A client has hypocalcemia symptoms after thyroidectomy. What is the most appropriate immediate nursing focus?

a)

Encourage high-sodium diet immediately

b)

Airway/breathing safety—monitor for stridor/laryngospasm while treating calcium deficit

c)

Start hypotonic fluids rapidly

d)

Give potassium bolus

98.

A client with suspected magnesium toxicity is becoming hard to arouse. Which assessment is most critical?

a)

Skin turgor

b)

Pupillary light reflex only

c)

Respiratory rate and depth

d)

Hearing thresholds only

99.

A nurse is teaching childhood epistaxis prevention. Which instruction is best?

a)

Encourage frequent vigorous nose blowing

b)

Use aspirin for discomfort

c)

Keep the room very dry

d)

Use humidification/saline and discourage nose picking