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FOH Final Practice

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which model describes a reflective process involving the steps of Noticing, Interpreting, Responding, and Reflecting?

a)

Lasater Clinical Judgment Rubric

b)

Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model

c)

NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model

d)

National Council of State Boards of Nursing Model

2.

The initial perception of a situation, influenced by the nurse's experience, knowledge, and relationship with the patient, is called ________ in Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model.

a)

Noticing

b)

Interpreting

c)

Responding

d)

Reflecting

3.

Which step in Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model involves attributing meaning to the collected data using various reasoning patterns?

a)

Noticing

b)

Interpreting

c)

Responding

d)

Reflecting

4.

In Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model, what does the 'Responding' step involve?

a)

Deciding on and carrying out an appropriate action (or inaction).

b)

Gathering information and cues from the patient.

c)

Reflecting on the outcomes of the intervention.

d)

Identifying the main problem or issue.

5.

Reflecting in Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model refers to:

a)

A) Thinking back on the situation, both during and after the event, to learn from the experience

b)

B) Attributing meaning to data

c)

C) Prioritizing hypotheses

d)

D) Recognizing cues

6.

Which rubric is developed based on Tanner’s model and details the development of clinical judgment through observable behaviors?

a)

Lasater Clinical Judgment Rubric

b)

NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model

c)

Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model

d)

National Council of State Boards of Nursing Model

7.

Effective Noticing in the Lasater Clinical Judgment Rubric involves ________.

a)

focused observation and recognizing deviations from expected patterns

b)

making assumptions without evidence

c)

ignoring patient cues and focusing on routine tasks

d)

delaying assessment until problems become obvious

8.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM)?

a)

A) Recognizing cues

b)

B) Analyzing cues

c)

C) Reflecting

d)

D) Taking actions

9.

List the six cognitive operations outlined by the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM).

a)

Recognizing cues, Analyzing cues, Prioritizing hypotheses, Generating solutions, Taking actions, Evaluating outcomes

b)

Recognizing cues, Analyzing cues, Prioritizing hypotheses, Generating solutions, Taking actions

c)

Recognizing cues, Interpreting cues, Prioritizing interventions, Generating solutions, Taking actions, Evaluating outcomes

d)

Identifying cues, Analyzing cues, Prioritizing hypotheses, Generating solutions, Taking actions, Evaluating outcomes

10.

Effective Responding in the Lasater Clinical Judgment Rubric is characterized by a calm, confident manner, clear communication, and skillful, flexible interventions.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following is the first step in the Nursing Process?

a)

Planning

b)

Assessment

c)

Evaluation

d)

Diagnosing/Identifying actual or potential problems

12.

The Nursing Process is a systematic, organized mental model that guides nursing practice through a series of steps, starting with _________

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Evaluation

13.

Which characteristic of a nursing assessment ensures that the nurse has a clear objective for the assessment?

a)

Purposeful

b)

Prioritized

c)

Complete

d)

Systematic

14.

Match the following characteristics of a nursing assessment with their descriptions:

a)

Prioritized

1.

Focuses on the most urgent patient needs first

b)

Systematic

2.

Conducted in an organized, methodical manner

c)

Factual and accurate

3.

Data is based on facts and verified for correctness

15.

Information perceived only by the affected person is called ________ data.

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Relative

d)

Quantitative

16.

Which of the following is an example of objective data?

a)

The patient's pain experience

b)

Feeling anxious

c)

Elevated temperature

d)

Feeling dizzy

17.

Data documented clearly and consistently to ensure effective communication is described as 'Recorded in a standard manner.'

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which type of assessment is performed shortly after admission to a healthcare facility to establish a complete database for problem identification and care planning?

a)

Initial (Comprehensive) Assessment

b)

Time-lapsed (Ongoing partial) Assessment

c)

Focused Assessment

d)

Emergency Assessment

19.

What is the purpose of a Time-lapsed (Ongoing partial) Assessment?

a)

To gather data about a specific problem

b)

To compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier and to reassess health status

c)

To identify and address life-threatening problems

d)

To establish a complete database for problem identification

20.

Focused Assessment is performed to _________.

a)

gather data about a specific problem that has already been identified or to assess a new or overlooked issue

b)

evaluate the overall health status of a patient

c)

administer medication to a patient

d)

prepare a patient for surgery

21.

Which assessment is conducted when a physiologic or psychological crisis presents to identify and address life-threatening problems?

a)

Emergency Assessment

b)

Quick priority Assessment

c)

Focused Assessment

d)

Initial Assessment

22.

Quick priority Assessment is a short, focused, prioritized assessment to gain the most important information first, often used to _________?

a)

flag existing problems and risks

b)

schedule routine check-ups

c)

document patient history in detail

d)

perform lengthy diagnostic tests

23.

Which core assessment technique involves the process of performing deliberate, purposeful observations in a systematic manner to assess size, color, shape, position, and symmetry?

a)

Inspection

b)

Palpation

c)

Percussion

d)

Auscultation

24.

Palpation uses the sense of ________ to assess skin temperature, turgor, texture, moisture, vibrations, and the shape of masses or organs.

a)

touch

b)

sight

c)

hearing

d)

taste

25.

The act of striking one object against another to produce sound, which helps assess the location, shape, size, and density of underlying tissues, is called _________.

a)

Percussion

b)

Auscultation

c)

Palpation

d)

Inspection

26.

Auscultation is the act of listening with a ________ to sounds produced within the body, such as heart, lung, and bowel sounds.

a)

stethoscope

b)

thermometer

c)

sphygmomanometer

d)

otoscope

27.

Nursing Diagnosis focuses on unhealthy human responses to health and illness, while Medical Diagnosis identifies a ________ disease process.

a)

specific

b)

general

c)

temporary

d)

unknown

28.

Fill in the blank: Recognizing patterns or clusters involves ______ patient data or cues that point to the existence of a health problem.

a)

Grouping

b)

Ignoring

c)

Forgetting

d)

Separating

29.

Fill in the blank: Identifying strengths and current or potential problems means determining the patient's ______ and health challenges.

a)

resources

b)

medications

c)

appointments

d)

insurance

30.

Fill in the blank: Identifying potential complications means anticipating ______ associated with the patient's condition or treatment.

a)

risks

b)

benefits

c)

medications

d)

appointments

31.

Fill in the blank: Reaching conclusions means formulating a ______ about the patient's health status.

a)

judgment

b)

diagnosis

c)

treatment

d)

plan

32.

Fill in the blank: In a nursing diagnosis statement, the Problem identifies what is ______ about the patient, using a standardized diagnostic label.

a)

unhealthy

b)

normal

c)

improving

d)

unknown

33.

Fill in the blank: Etiology in a nursing diagnosis identifies the factors that are ______ or contributing to the unhealthy state.

a)

causing

b)

preventing

c)

ignoring

d)

treating

34.

Fill in the blank: Defining Characteristics (Signs and Symptoms) are the cluster of subjective and objective data, cues, and patterns that serve as the ______ for the problem.

a)

evidence

b)

treatment

c)

diagnosis

d)

solution

35.

Which type of nursing diagnosis is described as a clinical judgment concerning an undesirable human response to a health condition/life process that exists in an individual, family, or community?

a)

Problem-focused

b)

Risk

c)

Health promotion

d)

Etiology

36.

Which type of nursing diagnosis is described as a clinical judgment concerning the vulnerability of an individual, family, group, or community for developing an undesirable human response to health conditions/life processes?

a)

Problem-focused

b)

Risk

c)

Health promotion

d)

Defining Characteristics

37.

Which type of nursing diagnosis is described as a clinical judgment concerning motivation and desire to increase well-being and to actualize human health potential?

a)

Problem-focused

b)

Risk

c)

Health promotion

d)

Etiology

38.

Fill in the blank: Premature diagnoses are made based on an ______ database.

a)

incomplete

b)

accurate

c)

comprehensive

d)

updated

39.

Fill in the blank: Erroneous diagnoses result from an ______ database or faulty data analysis.

a)

inaccurate

b)

organized

c)

complete

d)

updated

40.

Fill in the blank: Errors of omission involve overlooking ______ data that could lead to a different diagnosis.

a)

significant

b)

irrelevant

c)

random

d)

minor

41.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of comprehensive planning in nursing?

a)

Initial

b)

Ongoing

c)

Discharge

d)

Evaluation

42.

Fill in the blank: The planning step in the nursing process is a strategic phase where the nurse establishes _______, sets patient-centered goals and outcomes, and selects evidence-based nursing interventions.

a)

priorities

b)

diagnoses

c)

medications

d)

vital signs

43.

Match the levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Human Needs with their examples:

a)

Physiologic needs

1.

Breathing, circulation, nutrition

b)

Safety needs

2.

Security, stability

c)

Love and belonging needs

3.

Family, affection

d)

Self-esteem needs

4.

Achievement, confidence

e)

Self-actualization needs

5.

Morality, creativity

44.

Which domain of patient outcomes describes increases in patient knowledge or intellectual behaviors?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Psychomotor

c)

Affective

45.

Discharge planning begins upon admission and involves using teaching and counseling skills to ensure the patient is prepared for self-care at home.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Fill in the blank: A well-written, measurable outcome contains five essential parts: Subject, Verb, Conditions, and _________?

a)

Performance criteria

b)

Objectives

c)

Resources

d)

Assessment tools

47.

Which of the following is an example of a psychomotor outcome?

a)

The patient demonstrates a new skill

b)

The patient expresses a change in values

c)

The patient increases knowledge about medication

48.

Identify the correct order of the five levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Human Needs from most basic to most advanced.

a)

Physiological, Safety, Love/Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization

b)

Self-actualization, Esteem, Love/Belonging, Safety, Physiological

c)

Esteem, Love/Belonging, Safety, Physiological, Self-actualization

d)

Safety, Physiological, Esteem, Love/Belonging, Self-actualization

49.

Fill in the blank: The nurse uses established frameworks to prioritize patient problems and determine which issues require ________ attention.

a)

immediate

b)

routine

c)

delayed

d)

occasional

50.

Ongoing planning is only performed by the nurse who does the initial assessment.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Fill in the blank: ________ actions are autonomous actions based on scientific rationale that a nurse performs to benefit the patient.

a)

Nurse-initiated

b)

Physician-initiated

c)

Collaborative

d)

Patient-requested

52.

Fill in the blank: Actions initiated by a physician in response to a medical diagnosis but carried out by a nurse under a doctor's orders are called ________.

a)

Physician-initiated

b)

Nurse-initiated

c)

Collaborative interventions

d)

Patient-directed

53.

Fill in the blank: Treatments initiated by other providers (e.g., physical therapists, dietitians) and carried out by a nurse are called ________ interventions.

a)

Collaborative

b)

Independent

c)

Dependent

d)

Direct

54.

Fill in the blank: A treatment performed through direct interaction with the patient, such as administering medication, providing wound care, or teaching a new skill, is called ________ care.

a)

Direct Care

b)

Indirect Care

c)

Remote Care

d)

Passive Care

55.

Fill in the blank: A treatment performed away from the patient but on their behalf, such as consulting with other healthcare team members, managing the patient's environment, or documenting care, is called ________ care.

a)

Indirect Care

b)

Direct Care

c)

Primary Care

d)

Tertiary Care

56.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Rights of Delegation in Nursing?

a)

Right task

b)

Right circumstances

c)

Right medication

d)

Right person

e)

Right directions and communication

57.

Fill in the blank: The Five Rights of Delegation include Right task, Right circumstances, Right person, Right directions and communication, and ________.

a)

Right supervision and evaluation

b)

Right documentation

c)

Right medication

d)

Right assessment

58.

The right person in delegation means the delegatee has the right skills and competency.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Indirect care involves direct interaction with the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Collaborative interventions are carried out by a nurse but initiated by other providers such as physical therapists or dietitians.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following is a common reason for patient noncompliance?

a)

Lack of family support

b)

High value attached to outcomes

c)

Easy access to treatment

d)

No adverse effects of treatment

62.

Fill in the blank: One common reason for patient noncompliance is ________ about the benefits of treatment.

a)

Lack of understanding

b)

Excessive enthusiasm

c)

Overconfidence

d)

Complete agreement

63.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a common reason for patient noncompliance?

a)

A) Inability to afford treatment

b)

B) Limited access to treatment

c)

C) High value attached to outcomes

d)

D) Adverse physical or emotional effects of treatment

64.

Match the following outcome types with their evaluation method:

a)

Asking the patient to repeat information

1.

1-A

b)

Asking the patient to demonstrate a new skill

2.

2-B

c)

Observing patient behavior and conversation

3.

3-C

d)

Using physical assessment skills to collect and compare data

4.

4-D

65.

Fill in the blank: The final, critical step of the nursing process is ________.

a)

Evaluation

b)

Assessment

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Planning

66.

Which of the following is one of the Five Classic Elements of Evaluation?

a)

Collecting data

b)

Administering medication

c)

Scheduling appointments

d)

Providing transportation

67.

Fill in the blank: Documenting judgment involves recording the outcome of the evaluation and the ________ evidence.

a)

supporting

b)

irrelevant

c)

contradictory

d)

missing

68.

Interpreting and summarizing findings is NOT part of the Five Classic Elements of Evaluation.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which element of evaluation involves making decisions about the future of the care plan based on findings?

a)

Identifying evaluative criteria and standards

b)

Terminating, continuing, or modifying the plan

c)

Collecting data

d)

Documenting judgment

70.

Fill in the blank: Psychomotor outcomes are evaluated by asking the patient to ________ a new skill.

a)

demonstrate

b)

describe

c)

memorize

d)

discuss

71.

Based on the evaluation, the nurse will decide to: Which of the above actions should a nurse take if the patient has not achieved the expected outcomes?

a)

Terminate the care plan when each expected outcome is achieved.

b)

Continue the care plan if more time is needed for the patient to achieve the outcomes.

c)

Modify the care plan if there are difficulties in achieving the outcomes, requiring changes to the diagnosis, outcomes, or interventions.

72.

Which variable may be affected if a nurse is suffering from burnout or lacking experience?

a)

Patient

b)

Nurse

c)

Health care system

73.

Girls require _______ to _______ calories per day, while boys need _______ to _______ calories, depending on activity level.

a)

Girls: 1,200 to 1,800 calories; Boys: 1,200 to 2,000 calories

b)

Girls: 1,000 to 1,500 calories; Boys: 1,500 to 2,500 calories

c)

Girls: 1,500 to 2,000 calories; Boys: 2,000 to 2,500 calories

d)

Girls: 1,200 to 2,000 calories; Boys: 1,800 to 2,400 calories

74.

Childhood (Ages 4-8): Key nutritional concerns include malnutrition (especially iron, zinc, protein, and vitamin A deficiencies), food allergies (e.g., peanuts, milk, soy), and lead toxicity. Which of the following is NOT listed as a key nutritional concern for childhood?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Food allergies

c)

Vitamin C deficiency

d)

Lead toxicity

75.

Puberty (Ages 9-13): This stage is marked by rapid growth spurts and the development of primary and secondary sex characteristics. True or False: Puberty is characterized by slow and steady growth.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Girls should consume _______ to _______ calories daily, and boys need _______ to _______ calories.

a)

Girls: 1,400 to 2,200 calories; Boys: 1,600 to 2,600 calories

b)

Girls: 1,200 to 1,800 calories; Boys: 1,400 to 2,000 calories

c)

Girls: 1,800 to 2,400 calories; Boys: 2,000 to 2,800 calories

d)

Girls: 1,000 to 1,600 calories; Boys: 1,200 to 2,000 calories

77.

Puberty (Ages 9-13): Adequate intake of calcium is essential for building bone mass. Key vitamins needed include D, K, and B12. Which vitamin is NOT listed as essential for building bone mass during puberty?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin C

78.

What are the physical changes that occur during older adolescence?

a)

Rapid physical growth continues

b)

Physical growth slows after puberty, with psychological and emotional changes

c)

Metabolic rate increases

d)

Bone mass decreases

79.

Fill in the blank: Girls require _______ calories, and boys require _______ calories during older adolescence.

a)

Girls require 1,800 to 2,400 calories, and boys require 2,000 to 3,200 calories.

b)

Girls require 2,400 to 3,200 calories, and boys require 1,800 to 2,400 calories.

c)

Girls require 1,200 to 1,800 calories, and boys require 1,800 to 2,400 calories.

d)

Girls require 2,000 to 3,200 calories, and boys require 1,800 to 2,400 calories.

80.

Which of the following is a major nutritional concern during older adolescence?

a)

Risk of developing eating disorders like anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa

b)

High risk of diabetes

c)

Low iron intake only

d)

Excessive protein consumption

81.

What physical change is characteristic of young adulthood?

a)

A) Physical growth is complete and all body systems are fully developed

b)

B) Rapid bone growth

c)

C) Decreased metabolic rate

d)

D) Onset of menopause

82.

Fill in the blank: Women require _______ calories, while men need _______ calories during young adulthood.

a)

Women require 1,800 to 2,400 calories, while men need 2,400 to 3,000 calories.

b)

Women require 2,400 to 3,000 calories, while men need 1,800 to 2,400 calories.

c)

Women require 2,000 to 2,500 calories, while men need 2,500 to 3,200 calories.

d)

Women require 1,500 to 2,000 calories, while men need 2,000 to 2,500 calories.

83.

What is the main nutritional concern during young adulthood?

a)

Preventing eating disorders

b)

Maintaining health and normalizing bowel movements

c)

Increasing calorie intake

d)

Reducing protein consumption

84.

What physical changes occur during middle age?

a)

Signs of aging begin to appear, including perimenopause and menopause for women

b)

Rapid physical growth

c)

Increased metabolic rate

d)

Onset of puberty

85.

Fill in the blank: Women require _______ calories, and men need _______ calories during middle age.

a)

Women require 1,800 to 2,200 calories, and men need 2,200 to 3,000 calories.

b)

Women require 2,500 to 3,000 calories, and men need 1,800 to 2,200 calories.

c)

Women require 1,200 to 1,500 calories, and men need 1,500 to 1,800 calories.

d)

Women require 2,200 to 2,800 calories, and men need 3,000 to 3,500 calories.

86.

What is emphasized in nutritional concerns during middle age?

a)

Preventive nutrition and consuming foods high in antioxidants and omega-3 fatty acids

b)

High protein intake

c)

Low carbohydrate diet

d)

Increased sugar consumption

87.

What physical changes occur during older adulthood?

a)

Lean body mass and metabolic rate decrease

b)

Rapid bone growth

c)

Increased calorie needs

d)

Onset of puberty

88.

Fill in the blank: Women require _______ calories, and men need _______ calories during older adulthood.

a)

Women require 1,600 to 2,200 calories, and men need 2,000 to 2,800 calories.

b)

Women require 2,400 to 2,800 calories, and men need 1,600 to 2,200 calories.

c)

Women require 1,000 to 1,400 calories, and men need 1,600 to 2,000 calories.

d)

Women require 2,000 to 2,800 calories, and men need 2,400 to 3,000 calories.

89.

What are common nutritional concerns in older adulthood?

a)

Sensory changes, dysphagia, anorexia of aging, and importance of fiber intake

b)

High sugar intake

c)

Increased protein needs

d)

Rapid physical growth

90.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of high-quality documentation?

a)

Complete

b)

Accurate

c)

Confidential

d)

Inconsistent with professional standards

91.

Fill in the blank: High-quality documentation should be ________ and timely.

a)

organized

b)

lengthy

c)

random

d)

outdated

92.

Documentation is the written or electronic legal record of all pertinent interactions with a patient.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Which of the following is a potential breach in patient confidentiality?

a)

Displaying patient information on a public screen

b)

Logging off a computer after documenting patient care

c)

Shredding copies of patient information

d)

Speaking privately about patients

94.

Fill in the blank: All patient information is considered ________ and must be protected.

a)

confidential

b)

public

c)

irrelevant

d)

optional

95.

Patients have the right to request a restriction on certain uses or disclosures of their health information.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which of the following is NOT a patient right?

a)

See and copy their health record

b)

Update their health record

c)

Discard copies of patient information

d)

Get a list of disclosures made of their information

97.

Fill in the blank: Protecting patient privacy is an active, ________ responsibility, not a passive one.

a)

moment-to-moment

b)

occasional

c)

secondary

d)

optional

98.

Two ways breaches of patient confidentiality can occur are:

a)

Discussing patient information in public and leaving records unsecured.

b)

Properly storing patient records and using secure communication.

c)

Only sharing information with authorized personnel and locking files.

d)

Obtaining patient consent before sharing information and encrypting data.

99.

Meticulous documentation creates a legal record and ensures continuity of care.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

What is the purpose of a Change of Shift/Handoff Report in nursing communication?

a)

To summarize a patient's condition and care provided during a shift, communicated to the oncoming nurse to ensure continuity.

b)

To document medication errors for legal purposes.

c)

To schedule patient appointments for the next week.

d)

To record staff attendance during the shift.