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Government Midterm Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true of a representative democracy?

a)

The people themselves directly make political decisions.

b)

A king or queen is considered the head of state.

c)

The will of the majority is expressed by elected representatives.

d)

A leader seeks to control almost all aspects of social and economic life.

2.

Which of the following is a fundamental principle on which American democracy is based?

a)

Equal protection of the law

b)

Minority rule and majority rights

c)

Presidential dictatorship

d)

Divine right

3.

_____ is a voluntary agreement among individuals to create a government and to give that government adequate power to secure the mutual protection and welfare of all individuals.

a)

social contract

b)

limited government

c)

checks and balances

d)

popular sovereignty

4.

Which of the following is a basic principle that had evolved in England and was incorporated by the framers of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

Ethnocratic government

b)

Limited government

c)

Theocratic government

d)

Aristocratic government

5.

Which of the following best describes the term capitalism?

a)

It is a set of political beliefs that include the advocacy of active government.

b)

It is a concept that holds, at a minimum, that all people are entitled to equal protection under the law.

c)

It is an economic system based on the private ownership of wealth-producing property.

d)

It is an intrinsic property that measures the disregard for material possessions.

6.

The _____ established a national form of government following the American Revolution.

a)
Articles of Confederation
b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

The Constitution

d)

The Bill of Rights

7.

All the amendments to the Constitution have been proposed by:

a)

A vote by one-third of the state legislatures.

b)

A vote by three-fourths of the state legislatures.

c)

A two-thirds vote in the Senate and in the House of Representatives.

d)

A three-fourths vote in the Senate and in the House of Representatives.

8.

The battle over the ratification of the Constitution was fought chiefly by two opposing groups, _____.

a)

The Nationalists and the Federalists

b)

The Republicans and the Conservatives

c)

The Anti-Federalists and the Confederates

d)

The Federalists and the Anti-Federalists

9.

The Constitution incorporated the principle of _____ as the solution to the debate over whether the national government or the states should have ultimate sovereignty.

a)

Popular sovereignty

b)

Rule of law

c)

Limited government

d)

Federalism

10.

In an attempt to negotiate with the Anti-Federalists during the Constitutional ratification, the Federalists promised to:

a)

Establish a federal court system once the Constitution was ratified.

b)

Add a bill of rights to the Constitution under the new government.

c)

Guarantee voting rights for women and slaves to ensure complete representation.

d)

Minimize the powers of the judicial branch of government to ensure privileges to aristocrats.

11.

The constitutional basis for the implied powers of the national government is found in Article I, Section 8, Clause 18 of the U.S. Constitution and is often called the _____.

a)

Supremacy clause

b)

Necessary and proper clause

c)

Commerce clause

d)

Full faith and credit clause

12.

Which of the following is true of the Supreme Court case of McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)?

a)

It involved the question of taxes imposed by the federal government on the bank of Maryland.

b)

It involved both the necessary and proper clause and the supremacy clause.

c)

It dealt with the issue of whether the national government had the exclusive power to regulate commerce involving more than one state.

d)

It dealt with the issue of how the commerce clause should be defined.

13.

Which of the following is true of the supremacy clause that appears in Article VI, Clause 2, of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

It establishes Congress as the supreme branch of the national government.

b)

It ensures that the states retain ultimate governmental power.

c)

It gives sovereign powers to local governments who function at their own discretion.

d)

It makes the Constitution and federal laws superior to all conflicting state and local laws.

14.

Government powers in a(n) _____ are divided between a central government and regional, or subnational, governments.

a)
lateral system
b)
federal system
c)
totalitarian system
d)
unitary system
15.

Since the 1970s, corporations, labor unions, and special interest groups have been allowed to raise funds and make campaign contributions through _____.

a)

political action committees

b)

Congress members

c)

Congress members

d)

senate committees

16.

Which of the following is a purpose of interest groups in American politics?

a)

They help bridge the gap between citizens and government.

b)

They help conduct campaigns for candidates of primary elections.

c)

They restrict citizens from taking action on certain issues.

d)

They dictate the duties of government officials.

17.

Which of the following is true of the right to petition the government?

a)

It prohibits citizens from suing the government.

b)

It is guaranteed by the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution.

c)

It is a right limited to the members of Congress.

d)

It allows citizens and groups of citizens to lobby members of Congress.

18.

Lobbying is best defined as:

a)

the attempts to shape public opinion through online campaigns.

b)

the indirect techniques used by government officials to gain the confidence of interest groups.

c)

the direct attempts by individuals or organizations to influence administrative decisions of the government.

d)

the evaluation of performance of legislators based on how often they have voted with an interest group's position on particular issues.

19.

Political parties use newspaper articles, debates, and television announcements to present their views about important political issues. These activities:

a)

help citizens learn about the issues, form opinions, and consider proposed solutions.

b)

enable the parties to coordinate policy-related issues among the three branches of the government.

c)

enable the parties to adopt a view broad enough on these issues that no group will be alienated.

d)

promote unity among diverse party factions.

20.

The United States has a two-party system which means that:

a)

only two parties nominate candidates to run in general elections.

b)

the two major parties—the Democrats and the Republicans—dominate national politics.

c)

candidates must belong to one of the two major parties to run in state elections.

d)

all voters identify with either the Democratic Party or the Republican Party.

21.

Which of the following functions of political parties helps simplify voting choices for the electorate?

a)

They act as the major institution through which the executive and legislative branches cooperate with each other.

b)

They volunteer at the polling places.

c)

They help citizens learn about important political issues.

d)

They take the larger number of people who want to run for office and narrow the field.

22.

Which of these is the most accurate way of gauging overall public opinion between elections?

a)

Through public opinion polls.

b)

Through direct mailings to the public.

c)

Through phone calls to individuals.

d)

Through public opinion strategies.

23.

Typically, liberals and some moderates vote for Democrats, and conservatives vote for Republicans. This exemplifies the effect of ___ on voting behavior.

a)

ideology

b)

economic status

c)

the media

d)

the peer group

24.

The Twenty-fourth Amendment outlawed ___ in national elections.

a)
literacy tests
b)
poll taxes
c)
discrimination based on race
d)
the grandfather clause
25.

The ___ was passed in 1965 to prohibit state and local governments, particularly in the South, from interfering with the voting privileges of African Americans.

a)
National Voter Registration Act
b)
Congressional Act
c)
Civil Rights Act
d)
Voting Rights Act
26.

The District of Columbia has:

a)

no electoral votes because it is not a state.

b)

three electoral votes, even though it is not a state.

c)

five electoral votes because it has five members in the House of Representatives.

d)

two electoral votes because it has two members in the Senate.

27.

To be elected, a presidential candidate must receive:

a)

half of the 538 electoral votes available.

b)

more than half of the 538 electoral votes available.

c)

three-fourths of the 538 electoral votes available.

d)

more than half of the 600 electoral votes available.

28.

Which of the following is true of primary elections?

a)

Voters select the candidates of their party, who will then run in the general election.

b)

Candidates who win general elections then contest in primary elections.

c)

Voter turnout is usually higher in primary elections than in general elections.

d)

Voters are allowed to choose the candidates of more than one party.

29.

One of the criticisms levied against the media is that:

a)

they play too large a role in determining the issues, events, and personalities that are in the Public eye.

b)

they do not help to determine what people will talk and think about.

c)

they give no relative importance and give all stories equal priority.

d)

they play too small a role in supporting the democratic process.

30.

Which of the following is true of televised debates?

a)

They allow candidates to discuss their policies as much as they want, with no time constraints.

b)

They do not provide an opportunity for candidates to improve their images.

c)

They help shape the outcome of the election.

d)

They restrict candidates from pointing out the flaws of their opponents.

31.

Which of these is a true statement about media trends among today’s youth?

a)

The upcoming generation of media users regularly read newspapers.

b)

Today’s youth do not easily adopt new technology, and largely rely on traditional media outlets.

c)

Many of today’s youth transmit messages through telegraphs.

d)

Today’s youth have abandoned cable TV service in favor of online streaming.

32.

What kind of practice is exemplified in the situation described? The Supreme Court takes on a case about the constitutional merits of a law. After hearing arguments for and against the law, they issue a verdict that the law goes against certain provisions of the U.S. Constitution. Once determined unconstitutional, the law is struck down, or voided.

a)

Judicial review

b)

Federal appeal

c)

Limited government

d)

Popular sovereignty

33.

Which constitutional principle is identified with the concept of “consent of the governed?”

a)

Rule of law

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Separation of powers

34.

What are the first ten amendments to the US Constitution called?

a)

Article I

b)

Preamble

c)

Bill of Rights

d)

The Federalist Papers

35.

Which branch or branches of the federal government enforce the law?

a)

Judicial

b)

Executive

c)

Legislative and judicial

d)

Judicial and executive

36.

According to the Ohio and U.S. Constitutions, which responsibility is held by both the State of Ohio and the federal government?

a)

Raising taxes

b)

Declaring war

c)

Printing money

d)

Forming international treaties

37.

The legislative, executive, and judicial branches of the federal government each have specific powers. Which power belongs to the judicial branch?

a)

Enforcing laws

b)

Interpreting laws

c)

Passing resolutions

d)

Recognizing foreign nations

38.

The preamble of the U.S. Constitution introduces one of the basic principles of government in the United States. An excerpt from the Preamble to the U.S. Constitution is shown. “We the People of the United States...do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.” Which basic principle of government is introduced in the Preamble?

a)

Federalism

b)

Limited government

c)

Popular sovereignty

d)

Checks and balances

39.

Which right allows US citizens to directly participate in the electoral process?

a)

The right to vote.

b)

The right to trial by jury.

c)

The right to religious freedom.

d)

The right to legal representation.

40.

What is a responsibility for exercising the right to vote?

a)

Serving on a jury

b)

Paying attorney fees

c)

Obtaining a college degree

d)

Being informed on public issues

41.

What is the division of power between the state and federal government?

a)

Federalism

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Separation of powers

42.

Federalism deals with which following idea?

a)

Clarifying the roles of the three branches of government.

b)

That governmental power comes from the people.

c)

The relationship between the states and federal government.

d)

The ability of one branch to constrain the actions of another branch.

43.

The Federalists and Anti-Federalist debated the power of the central government. Which of the following statements would be true about the Anti-Federalist position?

a)

Anti-Federalist support states because they believe in the doctrine of absolute power.

b)

Anti-Federalist support states because they oppose an overly powerful federal government.

c)

Anti-Federalist support a strong President to lead America.

d)

Anti-Federalist support a Supreme that should be insulated from the people to make decisions that were based solely on the Constitution.

44.

Which branch or branches of the federal government makes the laws?

a)

Legislative

b)

Executive

c)

Legislative and judicial

d)

Judicial and executive

45.

Which statement summarizes the original Anti-Federalist position on the Bill of Rights?

a)

Additional amendments were needed, given the Constitution’s lack of individual protections.

b)

Adopting the Bill of Rights was too risky because it might threaten the ratification of the Constitution.

c)

The Bill of Rights should be adopted because national sovereignty should always come before states’ rights.

d)

No amendments were needed, as the Constitution already had protections against excessive government power.

46.

What Amendment prevents unreasonable searches and seizures?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

47.

What Amendment includes freedom of speech, religion, press, petition and assembly?

a)

14th

b)

2nd

c)

4th

d)

1st

48.

What Amendment lowered the voting age to 18 from 21?

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

49.

What Amendment gave women the right to vote?

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

50.

What Amendment gave African-American men the right to vote?

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

51.

What Amendment guarantees the right to bear arms?

a)

2nd

b)

9th

c)

10th

d)

11th

52.

What Amendment gave Washington D.C. 3 electoral votes?

a)

22nd

b)

23rd

c)

12th

d)

25th

53.

What Amendment created 2 term limits for POTUS?

a)

22nd

b)

23rd

c)

12th

d)

25th

54.

What Amendment ended slavery?

a)

16th

b)

15th

c)

14th

d)

13th

55.

What Amendment gave citizenship rights to former slaves?

a)

16th

b)

15th

c)

14th

d)

13th

56.

What Amendment protects us against self incrimination and double jeopardy?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

57.

What Amendment protects us from cruel and unusual punishment?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

58.

What Amendment guarantees us the right to a speedy jury trial in criminal cases?

a)

5th

b)

6th

c)

7th

d)

8th

59.

What Amendment guarantees that people have other rights that may not be listed in the Constitution?

a)

2nd

b)

9th

c)

10th

d)

11th

60.

What Amendment guarantees that states have powers that don’t belong to the federal government?

a)

2nd

b)

9th

c)

10th

d)

11th