wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Review- Chemistry Final S1 24-25

Total questions: 260

Worksheet time: 5hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Round 1009 to one sig figs

a)
100
b)
101
c)
1010
d)
1000
2.

Round 0.010229 to three sig figs

a)

0.0102

b)
1023
c)
0.01023
d)
0.01022
3.

What is 98.907 rounded to 2 significant figure?

a)

98

b)
90
c)
100
d)

99

4.

Calculate 5.5 cm + 5.500 cm and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.

a)
11 cm
b)
11.0 cm
c)
11.00 cm
d)
11.000 cm
5.

Calculate 7.987 m - 0.540 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.

a)
7.45 m
b)
7.447 m
c)
7.4 m
d)
7.5 m
6.

When performing the calculation 34.530 g + 12.10 g + 1222.34 g the final answer must have

a)
Three significant figures
b)
One decimal place
c)
Two decimal places
d)
Three decimal places
7.
Calculate 1.23 m x 0.89 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
1.0 m2
b)
1.1 m2
c)
1.0947 m2
d)
1.09 m2
8.

How many significant figures are in the number? 4.06 x 10-5 m

a)

3

b)

7

c)

5

d)

unknown

9.

What is the measurement of the liquid in the graduated cylinder?

a)

65 mL

b)

6.60 mL

c)

6.7 mL

d)

6.6 mL

10.

What is the minor scale on this graduated cylinder?

a)
.1 mL per line
b)
.2 mL per line
c)
.5 mL per line
d)
1 mL per line
11.

Steve used a ruler to measure the length of a cube. He found the cube to be 3 cm. This is an example of a ______ observation.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither qualitative nor quantitative

12.

A gray elephant stampeding across the Savannah is an example of a ______ observation.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither quantitative nor qualitative

13.

It is a measure of how closely measurements align with each other when they are made in the same way.

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Error

d)

Extrapolation

14.

What is the term for how close a measurement is to the accepted value?

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Significant

d)

Estimate

15.

This bullseye demonstrates...

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

16.

Which of the following is the best scenario?

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

17.

What is the volume?

a)

48 mL

b)

48.2 mL

c)

48.25 mL

d)

4 mL

18.

A controlled experiment:

a)

Introduces bias

b)

Tests several variables at once

c)

Tests one variable and has limited bias

d)

Changes no variables

19.

What are the units of measurement for mass?

a)

Liters

b)

Meters

c)

Grams

d)

Yards

20.
What is the formula for DENSITY?
a)
D=M*V
b)
D=M/V
c)
D=V*M
d)
D=V/M
21.

Which diagram shows the MOST dense object?

a)

left

b)

center

c)

right

22.

A block of aluminum occupies a volume of 15.0 mL and weighs 45.0 g. What is its density?

a)

3 g/mL

b)

0.3333 g/mL

c)

675 g/mL

d)

I have no idea

23.

Using the equation ρ=mV\rho=\frac{m}{V}  work out the density of this object.

a)

2.7 kgm3\frac{kg}{m^3}  

b)

7.2 kgm3\frac{kg}{m^3}  

c)

0.72 kgm3\frac{kg}{m^3}  

d)

0.27 kgm3\frac{kg}{m^3}  

24.

What is the density of the sphere, if its mass is 50 g?

a)

40 grmL\frac{40\ gr}{mL}  

b)

65mLg\frac{65mL}{g}  

c)

2 gmL\frac{2\ g}{mL}  

d)

25gmL\frac{25g}{mL}  

25.

Which liquid is the most dense?

a)

oil

b)

water

c)

syrup 

26.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
27.

An archaeologist estimated that a fossil was 520 years old. It was actually 500. years old. What was the percent error?

a)
4%
b)
20%
c)
3.8%
d)
none of these
28.

Find the percent error. Round to the nearest tenth of a percent.

Actual speed: 38 mph

Estimated speed: 35 mph

a)

8.1%

b)

0.79%

c)

7.9%

d)

6.8%

29.

7,000 g = ____ kg

a)

70

b)

700

c)

7

d)

0.07

30.

648 g = ____ mg

a)

6,480

b)

64,800

c)

648,000

d)

64.8

31.

240 cm = ___________ m

a)

2400

b)

24

c)

2.4

d)

0.24

32.

1000 grams = _____ kilograms

a)

0.0001

b)

1,000,000

c)

10

d)

1

33.

1 L = _______ mL

a)

1

b)

10

c)

100

d)

1000

34.

Which of the following conversion factors would be used to figure out how many mililiters(mL) there are in 1280 microliters( μ\mu L)?

1280μL1×              =\frac{1280\mu L}{1}\times\frac{\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }{ }=

a)

1000μL1mL\frac{1000\mu L}{1mL}

b)

1μL1000mL\frac{1\mu L}{1000mL}

c)

1mL1000μL\frac{1mL}{1000\mu L}

d)

1000uL1mL\frac{1000uL}{1mL}

35.

Which of the following conversion factors would be used to figure out how many microliters( μ\mu L) there are in the given amount of (mL)?

8.2mL1×              =\frac{8.2mL}{1}\times\frac{\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }{ }=

a)

1000μL1mL\frac{1000\mu L}{1mL}

b)

1μL1000mL\frac{1\mu L}{1000mL}

c)

1mL1000μL\frac{1mL}{1000\mu L}

d)

1000uL1mL\frac{1000uL}{1mL}

36.

Use the following dimensional analysis setup to determine the number inches in the given number of kilometers: 3.83km1×1000m1km×100cm1m×1in2.54cm=\frac{3.83km}{1}\times\frac{1000m}{1km}\times\frac{100cm}{1m}\times\frac{1in}{2.54cm}=

a)

150787 in

b)

150800 in

c)

151000 in

d)

150000 in

37.

The starting chemical in a reaction is called a ________.

a)

products

b)

initializer

c)

compounds

d)

reactants

38.

The products are generally found ____________ the arrow in a chemical reaciton.

a)

left of

b)

right of

c)

above

d)

below

39.

What is the scientific name for when a substance ‘disappears’ into water?

a)

combustion

b)

double displacement

c)

dissolving

d)

synthesis

40.

The scientific theory that matter is neither created nor destroyed in regular chemical reactions is called the _______________.

a)

conservation of mass

b)

kinetic molecular theory

c)

conservation of energy

d)

theory of relativity

41.

Which best describes the meaning of the arrow between the HCl and FeCl3?

a)

produces

b)

combusts

c)

dissolves

d)

reacts with

42.

Which best describes the meaning of the '+' between the Fe and HCl?

a)

produces

b)

combusts

c)

dissolves

d)

reacts with

43.

What state of matter does this best model?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

aqueous

e)

plasma

44.

What state of matter does this best model?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

aqueous

e)

plasma

45.

What state of matter does this best model?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

aqueous

e)

plasma

46.

Heat energy is also called

a)

Nuclear Energy

b)

Radiant Energy

c)

Mechanical Energy

d)

Thermal Energy

e)

Chemical Energy

47.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
48.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
49.
Which of the following terms identifies the change from a liquid to solid?
a)
Melting
b)
Condensation
c)
Vaporization
d)
Freezing
50.
Phase change from a solid to a liquid.
a)
melting
b)
sublimation
c)
boiling
d)
condensation
51.

At what temperature in degrees Celsius does water freeze?

a)

150

b)

0

c)

200

d)

32

52.

When ice sits out on a counter and melts, it is because the ice has...

a)

gained mass

b)

gained energy

c)

lost mass

d)

lost energy

53.

When water sits in the freezer and freezes into ice, it is because the water has...

a)

gained mass

b)

gained energy

c)

lost mass

d)

lost energy

54.

The transfer of thermal energy from a warmer object to a cooler one is...

a)

Heat

b)

Volume

c)

Thermal Energy

d)

Temperature

55.
In an exothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in
b)
given out
56.

Why can people on one side of a room smell the scent of an air freshener sprayed on the opposite side of the room?

a)

The molecules of air freshener have thermally expanded

b)

The air pressure where the freshener was sprayed is greater than in the rest of the room

c)

The molecules of air freshener spread out until they are evenly distributed throughout the room

d)

The molecules of air freshener are amorphous

57.
Solids are described as having a 
a)
definite shape and indefinite volume
b)
indefinite shape and indefinite volume
c)
definite shape and definite volume
d)
indefinite shape and definite volume
58.
Which state of matter take up ALL the space inside a container? 
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of the above
59.

The state of matter depends on its

a)

volume

b)

temperature

c)

weight

d)

mass

60.

What is matter?

a)

Anything that takes up space and has mass

b)

A substance with fixed composition

c)

Two or more substances physically combined

d)

A mixture with variable composition

61.

What is an element?

a)

A substance with fixed composition

b)

Two or more elements chemically combined

c)

The simplest form of matter from which more complex substances are made

d)

A mixture with variable composition

62.

What is a compound?

a)

A substance with fixed composition

b)

Two or more elements chemically combined

c)

The simplest form of matter from which more complex substances are made

d)

A mixture with variable composition

63.

What is a homogeneous mixture?

a)

A mixture where components are evenly distributed

b)

A mixture where substances are not evenly spread out

c)

A mixture where small particles remain dispersed throughout

d)

A mixture where larger particles settle out over time

64.

What is a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

A mixture where components are evenly distributed

b)

A mixture where substances are not evenly spread out

c)

A mixture where small particles remain dispersed throughout

d)

A mixture where larger particles settle out over time

65.

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Gold

c)

Water

d)

Helium

66.

What is a chemical change?

a)

A change in the composition and properties of a substance

b)

A change in the physical appearance of a substance

c)

A change in the state of matter of a substance

d)

A change in the temperature of a substance

67.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a)

A nail rusting

b)

Ice melting

c)

Wood burning

d)

A banana ripening

68.

What evidence do we have for chemical rearrangements at the atomic level?

a)

Observation of mass conservation

b)

Observation of color change

c)

Observation of temperature change

d)

Observation of gas bubbles

69.
A description of objects that can be measured and observed.
a)
gas
b)
mustangs
c)
physical properties
d)
melting point
70.

a characteristic of matter you observe as it reacts or changes into a different substance

a)

physical property

b)

chemical property

c)

periodic table

d)

conglomerate

71.

the mass per unit volume of a substance

a)

mass

b)

weight

c)

volume

d)

density

72.

the ability of one material to dissolve in another

a)

solubility

b)

boiling point

c)

melting point

d)

state of matter

73.

the state of being solid, liquid, or gas

a)

solubility

b)

boiling point

c)

melting point

d)

state of matter

74.
During an endothermic reaction in a beaker if we are part of the surroundings and touched the beaker, it would feel _______. 
a)
Warm
b)
Cold
75.

An element is a ___ that cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical or chemical means.

a)

pure substance

b)

mixture

c)

solution

d)

compound

76.

Which of the diagrams below represent a mixture?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.
The central region of an atom where neutrons and protons are located is the __________________.
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
78.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
79.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are 
a)
negatrons 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
80.

Used the word "atomos" to decsribe the uncuttable (indivisible) atom.

a)

Democritus

b)

Thomson

c)

Bohr

d)

Dalton

81.

Proposed that electrons move around the nucleus in specific layers, or shells.

a)

Bohr

b)

Rutherford

c)

Chadwick

d)

Thomson

82.
In Dalton's Atomic Theory, all elements consist of __________ that cannot be divided.
a)
Atoms
b)
Parts
c)
Molecules
d)
Hydrogen
83.

Which of the following is/are conclusions based on Rutherford’s gold foil experiment?

a)

Atom is mostly empty space

b)

The nucleus is positively charged

c)

The atom has a small dense nucleus

d)

All answers are correct

84.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
85.
What number indicates the nucleus?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
86.
How many electrons does this picture show?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
3
87.
The number in the upper corner of an element tile (7 for nitrogen) is called _____
a)
the proton number
b)
the atomic number
c)
the electron number
d)
the mass number
88.
For an atom to be electrically neutral, it must contain the same number of _____
a)
protons and neutrons
b)
neutrons and electrons
c)
protons and electrons
d)
nucleons and electrons
89.

Which part of an atom is used to identify it?

a)

number of protons

b)

number of neutrons

c)

number of electrons

90.

Who came up with the first atomic theory?

a)

Dalton

b)

Socrates

c)

Thomas

d)

Rutherford

91.

What did Rutherford discover about atoms?

a)

An atom is always negatively charged.

b)

An atom is mostly empty space, but has a dense positively charged center(nucleus).

c)

An atom is always positively charged.

d)

All particles will pass straight through gold foil with no change in path.

92.

What is the mass of a proton?

a)

1840 amus

b)

1 amu

c)

1/1840 amus

d)

It has no mass.

93.

What is a negatively charged particle?

a)

neutron

b)

electron

c)

proton

d)

atom

94.

What two particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons and electrons

b)

Neutrons and electrons

c)

Protons and neutrons

d)

Electrons and negatrons

95.

Which scientist discovered the electrons?

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Atristotle

d)

Bohr

96.
What scientist is best known for his "Plum Pudding" model of the atom?
a)
J.J. Tomson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Democritus
97.
Where is most of the mass in an atom located?
a)
in the nucleus
b)
in the protons
c)
in the neutrons
d)
in the electrons
98.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
99.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
100.
How many neutrons does the isotope below have?     89 36Kr
a)
53
b)
36
c)
89
d)
125
101.

What changes in an ion?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Electrons

102.

What changes in an isotope?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Protons

c)

Nuetrons

d)

Electrons

103.

A Bromine ion gains 1 electron, which of the following is the correct symbol for a Bromine ion?

a)

Br-1

b)

Br+1

c)

Br+7

d)

Br-7

104.
What is the charge of an atom that has lost one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
105.

An atom with 2 protons, 3 neutrons, and 4 electrons has a charge of ____.

a)

+2

b)

-2

c)

+3

d)

0

106.
Elements on the periodic table are arranged in increasing order of ______________.
a)
number of neutrons
b)
atomic number
c)
isotopes
d)
charge
107.
Vertical (up and down) columns in the periodic table are called _________ of elements and have similar properties. 
a)
groups
b)
periods
108.
The horizontal (left to right) rows on the periodic table are known as
a)
periods.
b)
atoms.
c)
groups or families.
d)
valence electrons.
109.

Which one of these is not a noble gas?

a)

He

b)

Rn

c)

I

d)

Kr

110.

What family is Sodium (Na) a part of?

a)

noble gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali Metals

111.
What element is in period 3, group 14?
a)
He
b)
C
c)
N
d)
Si
112.
Bromine (Br) is in period ___, and group ____.
a)
3,  17
b)
4,  17
c)
17,  3
d)
17,  4
113.

What is electronegativity?

a)

The ability of an atom to attract and bind with electrons

b)

The energy needed for a neutral atom to remove an electron

c)

The ability of an atom to become a negative ion

d)

The size of an atom

114.

Which element has the least electronegativity?

a)

Francium

b)

Cesium

c)

Fluorine

d)

Helium

115.

What is ionization energy?

a)

The ability of an atom to attract and bind with electrons

b)

The energy needed for a neutral atom to remove an electron

c)

The ability of an atom to become a negative ion

d)

The size of an atom

116.

Which element has the highest ionization energy?

a)

Francium

b)

Cesium

c)

Fluorine

d)

Helium

117.

What is atomic radius?

a)

The ability of an atom to attract and bind with electrons

b)

The energy needed for a neutral atom to remove an electron

c)

The ability of an atom to become a negative ion

d)

The size of an atom

118.

Which element has the highest atomic radius?

a)

Francium

b)

Cesium

c)

Fluorine

d)

Helium

119.

Which element has the lowest ionization energy?

a)

Francium

b)

Cesium

c)

Fluorine

d)

Helium

120.

What is the trend of ionization energy down a group in the periodic table?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

d)

First increases, then decreases

121.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
122.

What is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom?

a)

atomic energy

b)

ionization energy

c)

ionic energy

d)

electron energy

123.
Looking at atoms in the same group/family, what factor affects Coulombic attraction?
a)
number of protons
b)
distance from the nucleus
124.
Looking at atoms in the same valence energy level, what factor affects Coulombic attraction?
a)
number of protons
b)
distance from the nucleus
125.
As the Coulombic attraction increases the atomic radius: increases or decreases?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
126.
As the Coulombic attraction in an atom increases, the energy needed to remove an electron: increases or decreases?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
127.
As the Coulombic attraction of an atom increases, the electronegativity of the atom: increases or decreases?
a)
increases 
b)
decreases
128.

What idea is this cartoon showing?

a)

chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen

b)

chlorine has more energy levels than hydrogen

c)

hydrogen is more electronegative than chlorine

129.

Label the two parts of the atom here.

a)Nucleus
b)Electron cloud
1
2
1)
2)
130.

Match the following mass amounts with the proper charge.

a)

Protons

1.

(+)positive

b)

Electron

2.

(-) negative

c)

Neutron

3.

(0) neutral, no charge

131.

What is Neils Bohr's contribution to the atomic theory?

a)

Created the atomic theory

b)

Created a model of the atom with electrons moving around the nucleus in a fixed orbits

c)

Discovered that the proton had a positive charge

d)

Believed that atoms of a given element are identical

e)

Discovered the electron

132.
Rutherford’s experiment determined that the nucleus of an atom is tiny, dense and  ______ charged. 
a)
neutrally
b)
negatively
c)
positively
133.

Mass is neither created nor destroyed during chemical reactions or physical changes.

a)

Law of multiple proportions

b)

law of definite proportions

c)

law of scientific theory

d)

law of conservation of mass

134.

How many electrons can the 1st level hold?

(a)  

135.

How many electrons can the 3rd level hold?

(a)  

136.

How many electrons can the 2nd level hold?

(a)  

137.

How many valence electrons does the element sodium (Na) have?

(a)  

138.

How many electrons can a d sublevel hold?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

2

d)

6

139.

How many orbitals does an s sublevel have?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

140.

How many orbitals does a d sublevel have?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

141.

Electrons fill energy levels and sublevels _____ in energy first.

a)

lower

b)

higher

142.
The second energy level (n=2) contains a total of 5 electrons...how many more electrons can fit in the 2nd energy level?
a)
0
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
143.
Which of the following statements is true about the 3s and the 4s sublevels?
a)
These sublevels have the same energy
b)
These sublevels are the same distance from the nucleus
c)
These sublevels hold different amounts of electrons
d)
These sublevels have the same shape
144.

Of the following sublevels, which is the highest in energy?

a)

4s

b)

3d

c)

4p

d)

5s

145.

Which energy level has the lowest energy and is closest to the nucleus?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

146.

An orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

When electrons are closer to their own nucleus.....

a)

they are more attracted to its positive charge.

b)

they are less attracted to its positive charge.

148.

Where are the valence electrons

a)

nowhere

b)

anywhere

c)

the outermost

d)

innermost

149.

What is the purpose of an electron configuration?

a)

To indicate the arrangement of protons in an element

b)

To indicate the arrangement of electrons in an element

c)

To indicate the arrangement of neutrons in an element

d)

To indicate the arrangement of atoms in a compound

150.

According to Hund's Rule, how are electrons distributed in a sublevel with more than one orbital?

a)

One electron per orbital before pairing

b)

Two electrons per orbital after pairing

c)

One electron per orbital after pairing

d)

Two electrons per orbital before pairing

151.

What is the electron configuration of Nitrogen?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p3

152.

What is the electron configuration of Cobalt?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10

153.
Which element is depicted from this orbital diagram
a)
Fluorine
b)
Neon
c)
Chlorine
d)
Argon
154.
What is the charge of an atom that has lost one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
155.
What is the charge of an atom that has gained one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
156.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
157.

Which example shows a violation of Hund's Rule?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

158.
Which guideline, Hund’s rule or the Pauli exclusion principle, is violated in the following orbital diagrams?
a)
Hund's
b)
Aufbau's
c)
Pauli's Exclusive
159.

Which of the following is written correctly?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

160.

This orbital diagram represents

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon

d)

Neon

161.

Choose the correct electron configuration for Nickel (Ni).

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s10

162.

Choose the correct electron configuration for Krypton (Kr).

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s8 3d10

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6

163.

Each row on the periodic table represents:

a)

an energy level

b)

a sublevel

c)

an electron

d)

an orbital

164.

What is the electron configuration of Rb+1?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p7

b)

1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p8

c)

1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p5

d)

1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p6

165.

How many valence electrons does Cobalt have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

166.

What is the noble gas configuration for beryllium (Be)?

a)

[He]1s2

b)

[He]2s2

c)

[Li]2s1

d)

[Li]2s2

167.

What is the noble gas configuration for boron (B)?

a)

[He]1s22s2

b)

[He]2s22p2

c)

[He]2s22p1

d)

[Li]2s22p1

168.
What is the noble gas shorthand electron for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p4
169.
What is the abbreviated electron configuration for silver?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d9
b)
[Kr] 5s2 4d9
c)
[Ar] 4s2 3d9
d)
[Ag]
170.
What is the abbreviated electron configuration for barium?
a)
[Xe] 6s2
b)
[Rn] 6s2
c)
[Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p5
d)
[He] 2s2 3p1
171.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
[Xe] 6s2 4f14 5d9
a)
Mercury
b)
Gold
c)
Platinum
d)
Thallium
172.
What noble gas should be used to write the shorthand configuration for Te?
a)
Ar
b)
Kr
c)
Xe
d)
Sb
173.

What are 2 ways of writing the configuration for Aluminum?

a)

b)

c)

d)

174.

With what neutral element is Ag+ isoelectronic?

a)

Cd

b)

Pd

c)

Xe

d)

Kr

175.

What is meant by isolectronic?

a)

Group of atoms or ions have the same electronic configuration

b)

Group of atoms or ions have the same protonic configuration

c)

Group of atoms or ions have the same electrical properties

d)

Group of atoms or ions have the same electron charge

176.

What is the example of species that are isolectronic?

a)

Na+ and Si4+

b)

Na+ and Cl-

c)

Mg2+ and Al +

d)

S2- and O2-

177.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: Ca(OH)2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

178.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: SO2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

179.

What type of bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms?

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

transfer bond

180.
How many valence electrons does nitrogen have?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
5
d)
1
181.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal & 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
182.
How many electrons are shared in a double bond?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
183.

Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon dioxide CO2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
184.

H2O has how many covalent bonds?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

185.

N2 is an example of a

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

186.

Which Lewis Dot Model drawing correctly shows an O2 molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
187.
How many electrons should Lithium have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
188.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
Si4F
b)
SiF4
c)
SiF
d)
Si4F4
189.

How many total valence electrons are participating in bonding in the molecule above?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

190.

What is the correct Lewis Dot Structure for ammonia NH3

a)
b)
c)
d)
191.

Which best describes a triple bond?

a)

3 shared pairs of electrons

b)

3 shared electrons

c)

a central electron with 3 atoms bonded around it

192.

The word "molecule" applies to substances made of

a)

ionic bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

metallic bonds

d)

2 or more different atoms

193.
What is the ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms in the formula:
a)
1:5
b)
2:2
c)
0:4
d)
1:4
194.

Which of the following is the best representation of a molecule of fluorine (F2)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

195.
What is a diatomic element?
a)
a metal bonded with a nonmetal
b)
2 or more nonmetals bonded together
c)
2 or more metals bonded together
d)
2 atoms of the same element bonded together
196.
The number of bonds an element will form in a covalent compound will be equal to
a)
the number of valence electrons
b)
eight electrons
c)
the number of electrons needed to reach an octet
d)
the group number
197.
Compared to ionic compounds, molecular compounds generally have...
a)
good conductivity
b)
greater densities
c)
more chemical bonds
d)
a low boiling point
198.
What part of an atom is involved in chemical bonding?
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
nucleus
199.
A ________ is a model of an atom in which each dot represents a valence electron.
a)
Valence electron
b)
Electron dot diagram/Lewis dot structure
c)
Lewis bond structure
200.
The desire for an element to have 8 atoms around it is called 
a)
Octet Rule
b)
Resonance
c)
Ionization energy
d)
Electronegativity
201.
VSEPR theory is to
a)
determine the number of bonding and lone pairs electrons
b)
determine the number of ECC
c)
determine the shape and geometry of molecule
d)
determine the lewis structure of molecule
202.
What is the measure of a tetrahedral bond angle?
a)
90 Degrees
b)
109.5 Degrees
c)
120 Degrees
d)
180 Degrees
203.
Which of the following molecular shapes would have a bond angle of 180 Degrees?
a)
Bent
b)
Trigonal Planar
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
204.

What shape would PH3 have?

a)

Trigonal Planar

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Bent

d)

Linear

205.
What molecular shape is the structure shown here? (NH4+)
a)
linear
b)
trigonal planar
c)
tetrahedral
d)
trigonal pyramidal
206.
 A lone pair is defined as
a)
A pair of bonding electrons
b)
One non-bonding electron
c)
A pair of non-bonding electrons
d)
A pair of electrons on the central atom
207.
What molecular shape is the structure shown here? (BCl3)
a)
linear
b)
trigonal planar
c)
tetrahedral
d)
trigonal pyramidal
208.
VSEPR stands for ________ theory.
a)
Valence Structure of Electron Pyramids and Regression
b)
Varied Structures of Electrons Paired and Replaced
c)
Varied Shell Energy of Protons and Radiation
d)
Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion
209.

Which of these is the shape of CCl4?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
210.

What is the molecular geometry/shape of a molecule with 2 shared pairs and 2 unshared pairs?

a)

Linear

b)

Bent

c)

Trigonal Pyramidal

d)

Tetrahedral

211.

What type of bond would form between O and H?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

212.

What type of bond would form between O and O?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

213.

What type of bond would form between Li and O?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

214.

The bond between C and Cl is polar covalent. That means

a)

there is a pair of electrons shared equally between them

b)

there is a pair of electrons shared unequally between them

c)

an electron will be stolen from one and given to the other

215.

What type of bond contains atoms with "partial" charges?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

216.

Classify the following molecule.

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

217.

Classify the following molecule as polar or nonpolar: HCl

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

218.

Classify the following molecule as polar or nonpolar: F2

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

219.

Electronegativity is a measurement of the ability of a nucleus to:

a)

attract bonding electrons

b)

attract other nuclei

c)

attract electrons in the non-valence energy levels

220.

Classify the following molecule as polar or nonpolar: NCl3

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

221.

Classify the following molecule.

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

222.
How do covalent bonds form?
a)
Donating & receiving valence e- between atoms.
b)
Opposite slight charges attract each other between compounds.
c)
Scientists are still not sure how they form.
d)
Sharing valence e- between atoms.
223.

The electrons in a nonpolar covalent molecule are shared...

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Electrons are not shared

d)

None of the Above

224.
In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...
a)
electrons are being transferred to Fluorine
b)
electrons are less attracted to F than H
c)
electrons are more attracted to F than H
d)
Fluorine has formed a cation
225.
Ions are: 
a)
atoms with a positive or negative charge
b)
atoms with no charge
c)
atoms with ONLY a positive charge
d)
atoms with ONLY a negative charge
226.
Cations are
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
nonmetals
227.
If an atom gains an electron to become an ion, it is a(n)....
a)
cation
b)
anion
c)
noble gas
d)
metal
228.
Name that Ion
Li+
a)
copper (III)
b)
lithium
c)
ladmium
d)
iodine
229.
Name the ion...  P3-
a)
Phosphorous
b)
Phosphide
c)
Phosphorous (III)
d)
Potassium 
230.
What is the symbol for the Sulfide ion?  (The most stable form of Sulfur)
a)
S-2
b)
S+2
c)
S-8
d)
S+6
231.
Name the ion....  Ca2+
a)
Calcium
b)
Calcide
c)
Calcium (II)
d)
Calciumide
232.
Ionic bonds form between metals and ____.
a)
metalloids
b)
metals
c)
nonmetals
233.

Name this ion: NH4+

a)

ammonia

b)

ammonium

c)

nitrate

d)

nitride

234.

Which is NOT a polyatomic ion?

a)

OH-

b)

Cl-

c)

HCO3-

d)

NH4+

235.
Which of the following types of elements often has more than one common ionic charge?
a)
alkali metal
b)
alkaline earth metal
c)
transition metal
d)
nonmetal
236.
What is the element/ion symbol for Iron(III)?
a)
Fe
b)
Fe3+
c)
Fe3-
d)
Fe(III)
237.

Name that ion... Cu2+

a)

copper(II) ion

b)

copper (III) ion

c)

copper ion

d)

coppride ion

238.

Which of the following is the proper formula for Chlorite?

a)

ClO-

b)

ClO2-

c)

ClO3-

d)

ClO4-

239.

PO43-

a)

phosphorus oxygen ion

b)

phosphorus ion

c)

phosphate ion

d)

phosporic ion

240.

If the negative ion ends with -ate/ -ite that is means that ion is a polyatomic ion.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

241.

Metal ions have a _______________ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

242.

All the Group 1A ions have a __________ charge. (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs)

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

1-

243.

Monatomic ions, consist of a ............... atom

a)

More than two

b)

two

c)

single

244.

What is the name of the following compound: Mn2O3

a)

manganese oxide

b)

manganese(II) oxide

c)

manganese(III) oxide

d)

magnesium oxide

245.

What is the charge of copper in the compound: CuBr2

a)

+1

b)

+2

c)

-1

d)

-2

246.

What is the what charge of lead in the compound: lead(IV) iodide

a)

+1

b)

+4

c)

+6

d)

-1

247.

Which is the correct formula for the compound: Calcium Oxide

a)

CaO

b)

CaO2

c)

Ca2O

248.
What is the formula for magnesium phosphide?
a)
Mg3P2
b)
Mg2P3
c)
Mg2PO3
d)
Mg3(PO3)2
249.

When naming acids without oxygen, the ending always changes to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ite

c)

-ic

d)

-ous

250.

Acids without oxygen start with the prefix "____________"

a)

acid

b)

nitric

c)

hydraulic

d)

hydro

251.

What is the name of HBr?

a)

bromic acid

b)

hydrobromic acid

c)

hydroxybromic acid

d)

hydroic acid

252.

What is the name of H3PO4?

a)

hydrophosphoric acid

b)

phosphorous acid

c)

phosphorhydroic acid

d)

phosphoric acid

253.

What is the correct name of HClO3?

a)

hydrochloric acid

b)

chloric acid

c)

chlorous acid

d)

hydrochlorous acid

254.

What is the formula for nitric acid?

a)

HNO3

b)

HNO2

c)

HNO

d)

H3NO

255.

What is the formula for chlorous acid?

a)

HClO3

b)

HClO2

c)

H2ClO2

d)

HCl

256.

Always add the word "________" to the end when naming acids

a)

base

b)

hydro

c)

acid

d)

Baumstark

257.

When the polyatomic ion in an acid ends in -ate, the root name of the polyatomic ion is followed by the ending -_____.

a)

ide

b)

ic

c)

ous

d)

ite

258.
What determines the number of hydrogens in your acid?
a)
there are always just one
b)
its the same as the charge of hydrogen
c)
its the same as the charge of the anion
d)
magic
259.
What element do all acids contain?
a)
H
b)
O
c)
C
d)
He
260.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ite" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

Similar Resources on Wayground

Chemistry Final Exam Review Units 7-9

261 questions

Chemistry Final Exam Review Units 7-9

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade