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Worksheets

PostPPE - A2 2025

Total questions: 181

Worksheet time: 4hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is primary memory?

a)

A type of permanent memory.

b)

A type of memory that is accessed directly by the CPU.

c)

A type of ROM.

d)

A type of memory that is used when RAM is not sufficient.

2.

What is the advantage of a memory type that is closest to the CPU?

a)

Reduced access time

b)

More expensive

c)

Higher latency

d)

None of the above

3.

Which of the following stores the set of instructions for the boot process?

a)

RAM

b)

ROM

c)

Cache

d)

Virtual memory

4.

Which of the following stores the set of data and instructions that a processor is expected to use more frequently?

a)

RAM

b)

ROM

c)

Cache

d)

Virtual memory

5.

Which of the following storage devices uses magnetic properties to read and write data?

a)

Optical storage devices

b)

Hard disk drives

c)

Solid state devices

d)

None of the above

6.

Complete this sentence: Solid state devices read/write data based on ............................. properties of materials.

a)

Magnetic

b)

Optical

c)

Electronic

d)

None of the above

7.

What is the advantage of solid state devices over hard disk drives?

a)

Power loss due to heat in SSD.

b)

Lower power consumption in SSD.

c)

SSDs offer a larger memory space.

d)

All of the above

8.

What kind of applications are loaded into SSDs?

a)

Applications that are not frequently used.

b)

Applications that require high performance.

c)

Applications that occupy a large memory space and are used minimally.

d)

All of the above

9.

Which of the following has the lowest transfer rate?

a)

RAM

b)

Blu-ray disc

c)

USB flash drive

d)

CD

e)

Magnetic hard disk

10.

Which of the following device changes sound signals to digital signals that can be stored in a computer?

a)

Microphone

b)

Sound card

c)

Digital to analogue converter

d)

A and B

11.

What does the accumulator store?

a)

The result of the ALU's most recent operation

b)

The frequency of CPU operations

c)

The memory address to be accessed

d)

The instruction set for the CPU

12.

What is cache memory used for?

a)

Storing the program counter

b)

Holding the memory address

c)

Storing frequently used instructions and data

d)

Executing machine code commands

13.

What does clock speed measure?

a)

The number of processors in a system

b)

The frequency at which the CPU can carry out operations

c)

The amount of cache memory

d)

The number of instructions in a set

14.

What does the current instruction register hold?

a)

The next instruction to be executed

b)

The instruction that the CPU is currently executing

c)

The memory address to be accessed

d)

The result of the ALU's operation

15.

What is the Harvard architecture?

a)

Data and instructions are stored together

b)

Data and instructions are stored in separate locations

c)

A single processor system

d)

A type of instruction set

16.

What does the memory address register hold?

a)

The data to be saved

b)

The instruction currently being executed

c)

The memory address that needs to be accessed

d)

The result of the ALU's operation

17.

What is the function of the memory data register?

a)

Holds the data that has just been loaded from or is about to be saved to memory

b)

Holds the instruction currently being executed

c)

Stores frequently used instructions

d)

Increments the program counter

18.

What is an opcode?

a)

Part of machine instructions that specifies the operation to be performed

b)

Part of machine instructions that specifies the value to be used

c)

A register that holds the current instruction

d)

A sequence of fetch-decode-execute cycles

19.

What is pipelining?

a)

A technique for instruction-level parallelism within a single processor

b)

A type of computer architecture

c)

A list of machine code commands

d)

A sequence of fetch-decode-execute cycles

20.

Which of the following statements is describing the skill of, 'thinking abstractly'?

a)

Breaking a problem down

b)

Identifying the preconditions of a system, the inputs, outputs and reusable components

c)

Removing unnecessary details and including only the relevant details

d)

Identifying decision points for branching or iteration

e)

Means solving problems at the same time.

21.

Which of the following statements is describing the skill of, 'thinking ahead'?

a)

Breaking a problem down

b)

Identifying the preconditions of a system, the inputs, outputs and reusable components

c)

Removing unnecessary details and including only the relevant details

d)

Identifying decision points for branching or iteration

e)

Means solving problems at the same time.

22.

Which of the following statements is describing the skill of, 'thinking procedurally'?

a)

Breaking a problem down, allowing them the smaller problems to be solved.

b)

Identifying the preconditions of a system, the inputs, outputs and reusable components

c)

Removing unnecessary details and including only the relevant details

d)

Identifying decision points for branching or iteration

e)

Means solving problems at the same time.

23.

Which of the following statements is describing the skill of, 'thinking logically'?

a)

Breaking a problem down, allowing them the smaller problems to be solved.

b)

Identifying the preconditions of a system, the inputs, outputs and reusable components

c)

Removing unnecessary details and including only the relevant details

d)

Identifying decision points for branching or iteration

e)

Means solving problems at the same time.

24.

Which of the following statements is describing the skill of, 'thinking concurrently'?

a)

Breaking a problem down, allowing them the smaller problems to be solved.

b)

Identifying the preconditions of a system, the inputs, outputs and reusable components

c)

Removing unnecessary details and including only the relevant details

d)

Identifying decision points for branching or iteration

e)

Means solving problems at the same time.

25.

What is meant by the term 'abstraction'?

a)

A simplified programming language used in program design

b)

Getting to a solution through the clear definition of the steps needed

c)

Including the necessary details and leaving out the unnecessary details

d)

Breaking a problem down into smaller sub-problems

26.

When designing systems, it is important to consider what aspects are important to solve the problem and what are not. What is this known as?

a)

Abstraction

b)

Reality

c)

Programming

d)

Implementation

27.

You have been asked to design an abstract model for a satellite navigation program. Out of the following details, which you recommend removing from the finished model?

a)

Location of petrol and service stations

b)

Names of roads and motorways

c)

Wooded areas illustrated with trees

d)

Place names of towns and cities

28.

You have been asked to design an abstract model for a school canteen program. Out of the following details, which you recommend removing from the finished model?

a)

Students full names

b)

Student photos

c)

Students exam grade

d)

Student Payment details

29.

Which computational thinking skill is being described in this scenario: preparing the main course of a meal while a starter is being served.

a)

Thinking ahead

b)

Thinking procedurally

c)

Thinking abstractly

d)

Thinking concurrently

30.

What computational thinking skill includes breaking a problem down?

a)

Thinking ahead

b)

Thinking procedurally

c)

Thinking abstractly

d)

Thinking concurrently

31.

Procedural decomposition means -------- a problem into a number of sub-problems, so that each sub-problem accomplishes an identifiable task

(a)  

32.

Structured programming aims to improve the clarity and quality of a program

It is a method of writing a computer program which uses

------------- and procedures for program structure and organisation, i.e. breaking the problem down into subroutines

(a)  

33.

Lossy compression...

a)

Permanently removes data from a file

b)

Always leads to a noticeable loss of quality

c)

Aims to remove redundant data

d)

Can return the original file to its original quality

e)

Would be a sensible choice for a music download site.`

34.

Lossless compression...

a)

Is used when not all the information is needed

b)

Is not as effective as lossy compression

c)

Can fully regenerate the original file

d)

Includes files such as .ZIP

e)

Would be a sensible choice for a music download site

35.

What are the key reasons for compressing data?

a)

Less space needed for storage

b)

Less time to transmit

c)

Higher quality files

d)

Reduced amount of processing power

e)

Limited RAM

36.

Dictionary based compression...

a)

Is a lossless compression format

b)

Creates a dictionary of common letter combinations to encode words with fewer characters

c)

Creates a dictionary of smaller letters so less space is used

d)

Sends the dictionary with the data

e)

Doesn't need to send the dictionary with the data

37.

Run-length encoding...

a)

is Lossless

b)

is Lossy

c)

Can only be used for text

d)

Records the number of repeats of an individual element

e)

Can be used for a wide variety of file types

38.

Encryption...

a)

Uses at least one key to cipher data

b)

Is only used on text

c)

Can be symmetric or asymmetric

d)

Is impossible to break

e)

Has developed a lot as processing power has increased

39.

Symmetrical encryption techniques...

a)

Are the most secure types of encryption

b)

Use a single key to encode/decode

c)

Use multiple keys to encode/decode

d)

Include XOR, Caesar and Route

e)

Include RSA, Diffie-Hellman and DSS

40.

Asymmetrical encryption techniques...

a)

Are the most secure types of encryption

b)

Use a single key to encode/decode

c)

Use multiple keys to encode/decode

d)

Include XOR, Caesar and Route

e)

Include RSA, Diffie-Hellman and DSS

41.

Asymmetrical encryption...

a)

Often requires considerable processing power

b)

Is impossible to break

c)

Is being threatened by the possibility of quantum computing

d)

Can be brute-force attacked

e)

Is very widely used, even in small businesses

42.

A database is...

a)

a structured system for holding records

b)

a spreadsheet of information

c)

reliant on good design, as poor structure can cause many problems

d)

simple and easy to create

43.

An entity is...

a)

A thing, about which data is stored in the database such as Student

b)

A property such as Name or Age

44.

An attribute is...

a)

A thing, about which data is stored in the database such as Student

b)

A property such as Name or Age

45.

Entity relationships can be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

Many-to-Many

c)

Many-to-One

d)

One-to-Many

46.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a consultant to a patient would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

47.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a nurse to a ward would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

48.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a patient to a surgeon would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

49.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a consultant to a student would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

50.

In a school system, the relationship between a teacher to a pupil would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

51.

In a school system, the relationship between a teacher to a department would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

52.

A primary key is...

a)

A unique identifier for each record

b)

An identifier which can be shared between multiple records

c)

The first number in the record

d)

A way of looking up data in related tables

53.

A foreign key is...

a)

A unique identifier which links a record to a related record in another table

b)

A unique identifier for each record in a table

c)

A shared identifier for all records in one table

54.

What is the primary key?

a)

Sales ID

b)

Item ID

c)

Item Name

d)

Address

e)

Payment Complete?

55.

Which field is likely to be a foreign key?

a)

Sales ID

b)

Item ID

c)

Item Name

d)

Address

e)

Payment Complete?

56.

What will be returned by the SQL query:

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Sales ID = "00113"

a)

00112 1151213215 Keyring 123 Example Ln 1

b)

00112 65465654688 Pencil 123 Example Ln 1

c)

00112 87954121321 Bag 123 Example Ln 1

d)

00113 65465654688 Pencil 77 Bay St 0

e)

00114 65465654688 Pencil 999 Letsbey Ave 1

57.

Which of the following SQL statements will return the Sales ID of all sales which involve a pencil?

a)

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

b)

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil

c)

SELECT Sales ID FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

d)

SELECT Sales ID FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil

e)

SELECT "Sales ID" FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

58.

Which of the following SQL statements will return the address of anyone who has ordered a pencil and has paid.

a)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" and Payment Complete? = TRUE

b)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" and Payment Complete? = "TRUE"

c)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil and Payment Complete? = TRUE

d)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" or Payment Complete? = TRUE

e)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE "Item Name" = "Pencil" and "Payment Complete?" = TRUE

59.

Is this table in first normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

60.

Is this table in first normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

61.

Is this table in second normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

62.

Is this table in second normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

63.

Is this table in third normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

64.

Select the things which are true for a database in 1NF:

a)

Each entity has a unique identifier

b)

Each attribute is atomic (divided as small as possible)

c)

Each attribute has a single value

d)

There is no repetition

e)

There are no transitive relationships

65.

Select the things which are true for a database in 2NF:

a)

The database is in 1NF

b)

All attributes depend on the primary key

c)

There is no dependence

d)

There is no repetition

e)

There are no transitive relationships

66.

Select the things which are true for a database in 3NF:

a)

The database is in 2NF

b)

There are at least 4 tables in the database

c)

There is no dependence

d)

All attributes have a separate table

e)

There are no transitive relationships

67.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

68.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

69.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

70.

What are the four layers of the TCP/IP model?

a)

Data layer, Transport layer, Internet layer, and Network Access layer

b)

Application layer, Transport layer, Internet layer, and Network Access layer

c)

Application layer, Data layer, Internet layer, and Network Access layer

d)

Application layer, Transport layer, Data layer, and Network Access layer

71.

Explain the function of the Network layer in the TCP/IP model.

a)

It routes and forwards data packets between different networks.

b)

It controls the flow of data within the same network

c)

It manages the physical connection between devices

d)

It encrypts data for secure transmission

72.

What is the process of DNS resolution?

a)

Translating a domain name into an IP address

b)

Creating a new domain name

c)

Sending data packets over the internet

d)

Converting an IP address into a domain name

73.

Describe the role of DNS recursive resolver in the DNS resolution process.

a)

Providing secure access to websites

b)

Resolving domain names to IP addresses

c)

Translating IP addresses to domain names

d)

Managing email servers

74.

What is the purpose of an IP address in networking?

a)

To store data on the device

b)

To uniquely identify a device on a network and enable communication between devices.

c)

To control the speed of the network

d)

To provide physical location of the device

75.

Explain the difference between IPv4 and IPv6 addressing.

a)

IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses.

b)

IPv4 addresses are alphanumeric, while IPv6 addresses are numeric.

c)

IPv4 uses 64-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses.

d)

IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are the same, just named differently.

76.

Name two common routing protocols used in networking.

a)

OSPF and BGP

b)

SMTP and POP3

c)

HTTP and FTP

d)

SSH and Telnet

77.

Describe the operation of the OSPF routing protocol.

a)

OSPF is a transport layer protocol that ensures reliable data delivery between hosts.

b)

OSPF is a link-state routing protocol that uses areas to efficiently exchange routing information and calculate the best paths.

c)

OSPF is a protocol used for securing wireless networks and encrypting data transmissions.

d)

OSPF is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses split horizon to prevent routing loops.

78.

What are some common network security threats?

a)

Spam emails, software updates, firewall configuration

b)

Physical security, data encryption, password protection

c)

Social engineering, cloud storage, network monitoring

d)

Malware, phishing, ransomware, DDoS attacks, insider threats

79.

Explain the concept of a firewall and its role in network security.

a)

A firewall is a type of antivirus software used to protect a network from malware.

b)

A firewall is a device that amplifies network signals to improve internet speed.

c)

A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.

d)

A firewall is a physical wall built around a network to prevent unauthorized access.

80.

What is the role of application software?

a)

To manage hardware devices

b)

To perform non-maintenance tasks

c)

To initialize the operating system

d)

To convert high-level code to low-level code

81.

What does BIOS stand for in a computer system?

a)

Basic Input Output System

b)

Binary Input Output System

c)

Basic Internal Operating System

d)

Binary Internal Operating System

82.

Which type of software is provided without its source code files being accessible?

a)

Open-source

b)

Closed-source

c)

Embedded

d)

Distributed

83.

What is the function of a device driver?

a)

To manage memory locations

b)

To allow communication with a peripheral device

c)

To execute commands with little delay

d)

To simulate another computer system

84.

Which operating system uses multiple computer systems to work on the same task?

a)

Embedded

b)

Multi-user

c)

Distributed

d)

Real-time

85.

What is an embedded operating system?

a)

Built into a particular device

b)

Used for multiple users

c)

Used for real-time processing

d)

Used for scheduling tasks

86.

What is the first come first served scheduling algorithm?

a)

Executes the shortest job first

b)

Executes each process in the order it arrives

c)

Executes the process with the shortest remaining time

d)

Executes processes based on priority

87.

What is the purpose of an interrupt in a computer system?

a)

To manage memory

b)

To request handling of a process

c)

To execute commands with delay

d)

To simulate another system

88.

What does memory management involve?

a)

Organizing how memory locations are made available

b)

Converting high-level code to low-level code

c)

Scheduling processes

d)

Managing user accounts

89.

What is multi-level feedback queues used for?

a)

To manage user accounts

b)

To split processes into different queues

c)

To execute commands with little delay

d)

To simulate another computer system

90.

What is multi-tasking in a computer system?

a)

Running multiple users simultaneously

b)

Rapidly switching between running programs

c)

Executing commands with little delay

d)

Organizing memory locations

91.

What is a multi-user operating system?

a)

Allows multiple users simultaneously

b)

Executes commands with little delay

c)

Built into a particular device

d)

Uses multiple computer systems for one task

92.

What is open-source software?

a)

Provided without source code

b)

Provided with source code freely accessible

c)

Built into a particular device

d)

Used for scheduling tasks

93.

What is the role of an operating system?

a)

To perform non-maintenance tasks

b)

To manage the basic operations of a computer

c)

To convert high-level code to low-level code

d)

To simulate another computer system

94.

What is a virtual machine?

a)

Software that simulates another computer system

b)

Software that manages memory locations

c)

Software that executes commands with little delay

d)

Software that converts code to low-level code

95.

Which of the following graphs shows Constant Big-O notation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

96.

Which of the following graphs shows Linear Big-O notation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

97.

Which of the following graphs shows Polynomial Big-O notation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

98.

Which of the following graphs shows Exponential Big-O notation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

99.

Which of the following graphs shows Logarithmic Big-O notation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

100.

Which of the following best describe Linear Search:

a)

Very simple algorithm to code.

b)

Best suited to small lists.

c)

Not very efficient as it has to search every item individually

d)

Can only be used on ordered lists.

e)

This is more suitable to larger lists.

101.

Which of the following best describe Binary Search:

a)

Very simple algorithm to code.

b)

Best suited to small lists.

c)

Efficient, in general takes less steps

d)

Can only be used on ordered lists.

e)

This is more suitable to larger lists.

102.

Which algorithm is outlined below:

A simple algorithm popular with inexperienced programmers. It is inefficient when sorting large amounts of data as the time taken is related to the square of the number of items. Takes each item in pairs and compares them.

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

103.

Which algorithm is outlined below:

A simple sorting algorithm that builds the final sorted array (or list) one item at time. It is much less efficient on large lists than more advanced algorithms.

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

104.

Which algorithm is outlined below:

A type of divide and conquer algorithm which sorts the given sequence in place meaning that it doesn’t require extra storage as would be needed in a merge sort. The basic idea is dividing the sequence into two sub-lists around an element which is called the pivot.

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

105.

Which algorithm is outlined below:

A type of divide and conquer algorithm that was incited by John von Neumann. First the list is divided into the smallest unit (1 element), then each element is compared with the adjacent list to sort and merge the two adjacent lists.

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

106.

Which sorting algorithm is shown in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

107.

Which sorting algorithm is shown in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

108.

Which sorting algorithm is shown in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

109.

Which sorting algorithm is shown in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

110.


Which algorithm is shown in the code in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

111.


Which algorithm is shown in the code in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

112.


Which algorithm is shown in the code in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

113.


Which algorithm is shown in the code in the image?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Insertion Sort

c)

Merge Sort

d)

Quick Sort

114.

Which of the following are the advantages of an Bubble sort?

a)

A simple algorithm, that can easily be used.

b)

Can efficiently check if a list is already in order.

c)

Does not use much computer memory.

d)

Consistent runtime regardless of how unorganised the list is.

e)

Intuitive way to sort data whilst being easily coded.

115.

Which of the following are the advantages of an Insertion sort?

a)

Copes very well with small lists. Often paired with merge sorts to highlight each's advantages.

b)

Requires very little memory to run.

c)

Very quick to add new items into an already sorted list.

d)

Consistent runtime regardless of how unorganised the list is.

e)

Intuitive way to sort data whilst being easily coded.

116.

Which of the following are the advantages of an Merge sort?

a)

Much more efficient than Bubble and insertion sorts on large lists.

b)

Requires very little memory to run.

c)

Very quick to add new items into an already sorted list.

d)

Consistent runtime regardless of how unorganised the list is.

e)

Intuitive way to sort data whilst being easily coded.

117.

Which of the following are the advantages of a Quick sort?

a)

Useful for sorting arrays fast

b)

Does not take up a lot of storage space.

c)

Very quick to add new items into an already sorted list.

d)

Consistent runtime regardless of how unorganised the list is.

e)

Intuitive way to sort data whilst being easily coded.

118.

What part of the graph is highlighted?

a)

Node

b)

Edge

c)

Weight

d)

Heuristic

119.

What part of the graph is highlighted?

a)

Node

b)

Edge

c)

Weight

d)

Heuristic

120.

What part of the graph is highlighted?

a)

Node

b)

Edge

c)

Weight

d)

Heuristic

121.

Which of the following best describes a "Heuristic"?

a)

A value given to an edge on a graph.

b)

A point on a graph with an ID, that is connected to others by edges.

c)

A line that connects nodes.

d)

A value that is an estimated distance remaining from the destination node.

122.

Which of the following are functions specific to a Stack?

a)

pop()

b)

push()

c)

peek()

d)

dequeue()

e)

enqueue()

123.

Which of the following are functions specific to a Queue?

a)

pop()

b)

push()

c)

peek()

d)

dequeue()

e)

enqueue()

124.

The beginning of a Linked List is called ?

a)

Head

b)

Null

c)

Pointer

d)

Node

125.

The end of a Linked List is called ?

a)

Head

b)

Null

c)

Pointer

d)

Node

126.

Each part of a linked list is called?

a)

Head

b)

Null

c)

Pointer

d)

Node

127.

Which part of a Tree is described below:

The start node for the tree.

a)

Root

b)

Branch

c)

Leaf

d)

Height

128.

Which part of a Tree is described below:

The path from the root to the end point.

a)

Root

b)

Branch

c)

Leaf

d)

Height

129.

On the Binary tree in the image what is highlighted?

a)

Root

b)

Parent

c)

Left Child

d)

Right Child

130.

Which of the skills below is shown in the image?

a)

Count Controlled Iteration

b)

Conditional Iteration

c)

Recursion

131.

Which of the skills below is shown in the image?

a)

Count Controlled Iteration

b)

Conditional Iteration

c)

Recursion

132.

Which of the skills below is shown in the image?

a)

Count Controlled Iteration

b)

Conditional Iteration

c)

Recursion

133.

Which of the following is described below:

The storage of a value under a declared name these can change.

a)

Variable

b)

Constant

c)

Global Variable

d)

Local Variable

134.

Which of the following is described below:

The storage of a value under a declared name these cannot change.

a)

Variable

b)

Constant

c)

Global Variable

d)

Local Variable

135.

Which of the following is described below:

A variable that can be read and changed by the entire program.

a)

Variable

b)

Constant

c)

Global Variable

d)

Local Variable

136.

Which of the following is described below:

A variable which is defined and can only be used within one part of the program

a)

Variable

b)

Constant

c)

Global Variable

d)

Local Variable

137.

Which type of parameter parsing is used in the image.

a)

By Value

b)

By Reference

138.

Which type of parameter parsing is used in the image.

a)

By Value

b)

By Reference

139.

What type of sub-routine is shown in the image?

a)

Function

b)

Procedure

140.

What type of sub-routine is shown in the image?

a)

Function

b)

Procedure

141.

What is one reason why a Government may decide to restrict access to the internet?

a)

To preserve their culture

b)

To ensure natural resources are protected

c)

They don't understand what it can be used for

d)

To protect their industry

142.

The NHS stores vast amounts of information on past medical treatments, cures, trials, success rates, patient diagnosis and more. With data mining it is possible to analyse this data easily. Which of the following is a valid ethical concern?

a)

I could be used to enhance current treatment techniques

b)

It can be used to find potential new cures

c)

It could be used to suggest improvements to diagnostic methods

d)

The process shouldn’t invade an individuals right to privacy

143.

When a binary number is shifted two places to the left the effect on the result is?

a)

The result is 4 times larger.

b)

The result is 2 times larger.

c)

The result is 4 times smaller.

d)

The result is half the original.

144.

Which logic gate is pictured?

a)

NOT

b)

AND

c)

OR

d)

XOR

145.

Which logic gate is pictured?

a)

NOT

b)

NAND

c)

NOR

d)

XOR

146.

Which logic gate is pictured?

a)

NOT

b)

NAND

c)

NOR

d)

XOR

147.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

¬(¬A) = A

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

148.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

(A ˄ B) ˄ C = A ˄ (B ˄ C)

(A ˅ B) ˅ C = A ˅ (B ˅ C)

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

149.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

A ˅ (A ˄ B) = A

A ˄ (A ˅ B) = A

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

150.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

A ˄ B = B ˄ A

A ˅ B = B ˅ A

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

151.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

A ˄ (B ˅ C) = (A ˄ B) ˅ (A ˄ C)

A ˅ (B ˄ C) = (A ˅ B) ˄ (A ˅ C)

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

152.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

A ˄ (B ˅ C) = (A ˄ B) ˅ (A ˄ C)

A ˅ (B ˄ C) = (A ˅ B) ˄ (A ˅ C)

a)

Double Negation

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

153.

Which Simplifying Boolean Algebra Method is shown below:

¬(A ˅ B) = ¬A ˄ ¬B

¬(A ˄ B) = ¬A ˅ ¬B

a)

De Morgan's Rule

b)

Associative

c)

Absorption

d)

Commutative

e)

Distributive

154.

Which statement is a simplification of the boolean algebra in the Karnaugh Map.

a)

C

b)

C˄D

c)

A

d)

A˄B

155.

Which statement is a simplification of the boolean algebra in the Karnaugh Map.

a)

¬A ˅ C

b)

A ˄ C

c)

A ˅ C

d)

¬A ˄ C

156.

Which statement is a simplification of the boolean algebra in the Karnaugh Map.

a)

(C ˄ ¬B) ˅ (B ˄ D)

b)

(C ˄ B) ˅ (¬B ˄ D)

c)

(C ˄ B) ˅ ¬(B ˄ D)

d)

¬(C ˄ B) ˅ (B ˄ D)

157.

Identify what is shown in the image?

a)

Half-Adder

b)

Full-Adder

c)

Flip-Flop

d)

D-type Flip-Flop

158.

Identify what is shown in the image?

a)

Half-Adder

b)

Full-Adder

c)

Flip-Flop

d)

D-type Flip-Flop

159.

Identify what is shown in the image?

a)

Half-Adder

b)

Full-Adder

c)

Flip-Flop

d)

D-type Flip-Flop

160.

Identify what is shown in the image?

a)

Half-Adder

b)

Full-Adder

c)

Flip-Flop

d)

D-type Flip-Flop

161.

How is the fraction 0.101 represented in decimal?

a)

0.25

b)

0.5

c)

0.625

d)

0.75

162.

In binary, what does the fractional part .01 represent in decimal?

a)

0.125

b)

0.25

c)

0.5

d)

0.75

163.

Please identify the numbers that are in normalised floating point format.

a)

11001001

b)

10101010

c)

00110110

d)

01011000

e)

011011100

164.

Please identify the numbers that are not in normalised floating point format.

a)

11000011

b)

111110000

c)

011111111

d)

10000000

e)

1111111111

165.

What Input a number to the accumulator?

a)

INT

b)

INP

c)

INPUT

d)

STA x

166.

What stores the number in the accumulator to address x?

a)

STO x

b)

Store accumulator

c)

LDA

d)

STA x

167.

What Loads the number in address x into the accumulator?

a)

LAD x

b)

Load x

c)

LDA x

d)

ID4 x

168.

What Outputs the number in the accumulator?

a)

OUT x

b)

OUTP x

c)

OUTPUT x

d)

All of the above

169.

The LMC performs all THREE except

a)

Execute

b)

process

c)

decode

d)

fetch

170.

Select the true statements about memory paging:

a)

Processes are split into equal sized frames

b)

A page table is used to record all the pages

c)

Unused pages are swapped out of main memory and into virtual memory

d)

Processes are split into variable sized frames

171.

Segmentation:

a)

Splits processes into variable sized pieces

b)

Splits processes into set sized pieces

c)

Keeps processes together in RAM

d)

Places processes wherever there is space in RAM

e)

Can cause stack overflows

172.

The role of scheduling is...

a)

To make sure tasks get as much time as they need on the CPU

b)

To make sure that all tasks get time on the processor and respond in a reasonable time

c)

To make sure that the user does not have to wait for processes to run

d)

To prevent the user from crashing the computer

173.

The BIOS allows you to:

a)

Change the computer's time/date settings

b)

Change the order in which drives are booted from

c)

Change the computer's operating system

d)

Change the user's login details

174.
What is the difference between a class and an object?
a)
A class is a blueprint to make an object
b)
An object is a blueprint to make a class
c)
A blueprint is an object to make a class
d)
Blueprint class is an object make a
175.
The wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit is called
a)
overloading
b)
class
c)
object
d)
encapsulation 
176.

A method is...

a)

A way of calculating things in Java

b)

A strategy for programming

c)

A predefined set of instructions in a class

d)

A way to sore details in a class

177.

What does an object consist of?

a)

Methods

b)

Attributes

c)

Methods and Attributes

d)

Procedures

e)

Variables

178.

Choose the correct HTML element for the largest heading:

a)

<head>

b)

<h1>

c)

<heading>

d)

<h6>

179.

What defines the beginning and ending of the visible part of a webpage?

a)

<head> main part of the document </body>

b)

<body> main part of the document </html>

c)

d) </body> main part of the document <html>

d)

<body> main part of the document </body>

180.

What is the correct syntax for defining a hyperlink in HTML?

a)

<a href=”url”> Link text </a>

b)

<a href=”url”> Link text <a>

c)

<a=”url”> Link text <a>

d)

<ref=”url”> Link text <a>

181.

Which of the following is a valid CSS rule?

a)

h1 {

color: blue;

}

b)

<h1> {

color: blue;

}

c)

h1 {

color="blue";

}

d)

h1 {

color=blue;

}

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