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Worksheets

PERIODICAL TEST REVIEWER

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is known as the “Father of the Modern School of Composition”?

a)

Béla Bartók

b)

Claude Debussy

c)

George Gershwin

d)

Igor Stravinsky

2.

Who is associated with Chance Music?

a)

Debussy

b)

Ravel

c)

John Cage

d)

Bartók

3.

Example of Chance Music:

a)

4’33”

b)

Boléro

c)

La Mer

d)

Rhapsody in Blue

4.

Chance Music can be defined as:

a)

Completely silent music

b)

Music composed entirely of jazz

c)

Music where some elements are left to chance

d)

Music focused on melody

5.

Who is considered a pioneer of electronic music?

a)

Arnold Schoenberg

b)

Claude Debussy

c)

Edgard Varèse

d)

Igor Stravinsky

6.

Which best describes electronic music?

a)

Only uses piano

b)

Uses synthesizers and electronic instruments

c)

Uses only natural sounds

d)

Only focuses on classical symphonies

7.

A composer uses bird sounds in a piece. This is an example of:

a)

Impressionism

b)

Electronic Music

c)

Expressionism

d)

Chance Music

8.

Who is the “Father of Electronic Music”?

a)

George Gershwin

b)

Edgard Varèse

c)

Claude Debussy

d)

Igor Stravinsky

9.

Edgard Varèse described music as:

a)

Sound organized in time

b)

Organized sound

c)

Random noise

d)

Pure melody

10.

Which best describes Varèse’s music?

a)

Strictly classical forms

b)

Between music and noise

c)

Completely silent

d)

Simple melodies

11.

Who is the Father of American Jazz?

a)

George Gershwin

b)

Leonard Bernstein

c)

Claude Debussy

d)

Edgard Varèse

12.

Gershwin is known for:

a)

Using silence in music

b)

Combining jazz and classical music

c)

Composing purely electronic works

d)

Creating Impressionist pieces

13.

Leonard Bernstein is known for blending:

a)

Folk and Medieval

b)

Jazz and symphonic works

c)

Silence and noise

d)

Chance and order

14.

Which of the following is NOT a musical era?

a)

Baroque

b)

Classical

c)

Pop Era

d)

Romantic

15.

Béla Bartók is known for:

a)

Impressionist piano pieces

b)

Expressionist works

c)

Using folk music in Primitivism

d)

Silent compositions

16.

The Rite of Spring was composed by:

a)

Debussy

b)

Ravel

c)

Stravinsky

d)

Gershwin

17.

Impressionism is to suggestion as Expressionism is to ______.

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Exaggerated emotion

c)

Rhythm

d)

Balance

18.

Neo-Classicism is best described as:

a)

Use of exaggerated emotion

b)

Revival of balance and order

c)

Use of silence and chance

d)

Jazz combined with classical

19.

Which best describes Primitivism in music?

a)

Borrowing simple, cultural elements

b)

Strict classical balance

c)

Emotional exaggeration

d)

Dreamy atmosphere

20.

A piece using sounds from the environment is an example of:

a)

Impressionism

b)

Chance Music

c)

Expressionism

d)

Neo-Classicism

21.

Exoticism in music refers to:

a)

Using materials from other cultures

b)

Using silence as sound

c)

Strict rules of composition

d)

Balanced forms

22.

What makes 4’33” unique compared to other Chance works?

a)

It relies on improvisation.

b)

It uses silence as the core element.

c)

It emphasizes melody.

d)

It was written only for electronic instruments.

23.

Which Expressionist composer developed the twelve-tone technique?

a)

Igor Stravinsky

b)

Arnold Schoenberg

c)

Maurice Ravel

d)

Claude Debussy

24.

Which describes Expressionist music?

a)

Avoids dissonance, focuses on harmony

b)

Expresses anxiety and alienation

c)

Uses simple folk tunes

d)

Centers on balanced form

25.

Expressionism is characterized by:

a)

Exaggerated emotions and dissonant harmonies

b)

Focus on balance and order

c)

Use of folk songs

d)

Calm and dreamy tone

26.

Which style is known for its disturbing, dramatic, and dissonant music that avoids a clear key?

a)

Impressionism

b)

Expressionism

c)

Neo-Classicism

d)

Primitivism

27.

What makes Pierrot Lunaire an Expressionist piece?

a)

Use of simple folk melodies

b)

Harsh dissonances and psychological themes

c)

Clear tonal center

d)

Balanced classical forms

28.

Avant-Garde music can best be described as:

a)

Traditional and classical

b)

Experimental and radical

c)

Romantic and emotional

d)

Simple and folk-based

29.

John Cage was inspired by:

a)

Everyday sounds and silence

b)

Traditional folk music

c)

Medieval chants

d)

Jazz improvisation

30.

Which is an unconventional work by John Cage?

a)

Boléro

b)

La Mer

c)

4’33”

d)

Blue Rhapsody

31.

Chance Music allows performers to:

a)

Follow strict notation

b)

Use random sounds and improvisation

c)

Focus on melody only

d)

Play only traditional instruments

32.

A piece using sounds from the environment is an example of:

a)

Impressionism

b)

Chance Music

c)

Expressionism

d)

Neo-Classicism

33.

Which is NOT an Avant-Garde composer?

a)

Arnold Schoenberg

b)

George Gershwin

c)

John Cage

d)

Edgard Varèse

34.

Who composed Pierrot Lunaire?

a)

Arnold Schoenberg

b)

Claude Debussy

c)

Maurice Ravel

d)

Igor Stravinsky

35.

Which composition is by Maurice Ravel?

a)

Pavane for a Dead Princess

b)

Pierrot Lunaire

c)

La Mer

d)

Rhapsody in Blue

36.

Which of the following is a work by Claude Debussy?

a)

La Mer

b)

Rhapsody in Blue

c)

The Rite of Spring

d)

Music for Strings, Percussion, and Celesta

37.

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Impressionism?

a)

It focuses on mood and atmosphere.

b)

It emphasizes clear and rigid structure.

c)

It uses new scales and harmonies.

d)

It was pioneered by Debussy.

38.

Which instrument was often highlighted in Impressionist music?

a)

Flute

b)

Harp

c)

Piano

d)

Violin

39.

Which Impressionist composer is famous for his use of tone colors and harmonies?

a)

Claude Debussy

b)

Maurice Ravel

c)

Arnold Schoenberg

d)

Igor Stravinsky

40.

Which best describes Impressionist music?

a)

Dramatic with harsh dissonance

b)

Emotional and exaggerated

c)

Uses tone color, rhythm, and harmony to create atmosphere

d)

Focused only on strict structure

41.

It is a primary means of visual communication.

a)

Color

b)

Line

c)

Shape

d)

Value

42.

This element refers to the lightness and darkness of surfaces.

a)

Color

b)

Shape

c)

Shape

d)

Value

43.

A component of light that affects moods, actions, and even health.

a)

Color

b)

Line

c)

Shape

d)

Value

44.

A system designed to depict the way objects in space appear to the eye.

a)

Shape

b)

Space

c)

Perspective

d)

Texture

45.

Which element of art appeals most to the sense of touch?

a)

Color

b)

Shape

c)

Texture

d)

Value

46.

When lines come together, they form __________.

a)

Line

b)

Art

c)

Painting

d)

Shape

47.

Which element of art is seen when an artwork shows a clear sense of foreground, middle ground, and background?

a)

Line

b)

Space

c)

Shape

d)

Value

48.

A mark or stroke that is longer than it is wide.

a)

Line

b)

Shape

c)

Direction

d)

Geometric

49.

What principle refers to equal visual weight on both sides of a composition?

a)

Balance

b)

Emphasis

c)

Rhythm

d)

Unity

50.

What principle of design shows a size relationship between elements?

a)

Balance

b)

Emphasis

c)

Proportion

d)

Rhythm

51.

Which principle shows dominance of one part over others?

a)

Balance

b)

Emphasis

c)

Harmony

d)

Rhythm

52.

What principle refers to differences that create visual interest?

a)

Balance

b)

Contrast

c)

Harmony

d)

Rhythm

53.

The repeated use of elements creates which principle?

a)

Emphasis

b)

Proportion

c)

Rhythm

d)

Unity

54.

Which principle creates harmony through repetition and differences?

a)

Rhythm

b)

Scale

c)

Unity and Variety

d)

Subordination

55.

It is the condition in which acting influences are balanced by opposing forces; the left side mirrors the right.

a)

Balance

b)

Contrast

c)

Emphasis

d)

Rhythm

56.

A painting shows a small figure in a large room with many details around it. What design principle is used to make the figure stand out?

a)

Balance

b)

Emphasis

c)

Rhythm

d)

Unity

57.

Who is considered the father of Impressionist painting?

a)

Claude Monet

b)

Pablo Picasso

c)

Henri Matisse

d)

Salvador Dalí

58.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Impressionism?

a)

Painting outdoors

b)

Short broken strokes

c)

Mixed colors applied on canvas

d)

Dramatic lighting and religious themes

59.

He painted sparkling snapshots of real life full of color and light.

a)

Claude Monet

b)

Edouard Manet

c)

Pierre-Auguste Renoir

d)

Edvard Munch

60.

Which artwork best reflects Impressionism?

a)

The Starry Night – Van Gogh

b)

Persistence of Memory – Dalí

c)

Impression, Sunrise – Monet

d)

The Weeping Woman – Picasso

61.

What influenced Claude Monet to develop Impressionism?

a)

Geometry and architecture

b)

Religious travel

c)

Light changing throughout the day

d)

Study of sculpture

62.

Impressionist artists were known to paint __________.

a)

Outdoor scenes

b)

Religious icons

c)

Mythological tales

d)

Military battles

63.

The art of emotion and distortion.

a)

Abstractionism

b)

Expressionism

c)

Impressionism

d)

Surrealism

64.

Expressionist artworks often emphasize:

a)

Peaceful landscapes

b)

Emotional intensity and distortion

c)

Scientific accuracy

d)

Religious symbolism

65.

Which Expressionist artist is famous for The Scream?

a)

Henri Matisse

b)

Edvard Munch

c)

Wassily Kandinsky

d)

Claude Monet

66.

A student paints distorted faces and intense colors to show pain. Which style is this?

a)

Cubism

b)

Expressionism

c)

Minimalism

d)

Surrealism

67.

Which sub-style of Expressionism used bold colors and distortions?

a)

Fauvism

b)

Impressionism

c)

Surrealism

d)

Op Art

68.

Which Expressionist artist was known for elongated faces and oval shapes in paintings?

a)

Salvador Dalí

b)

Henri Matisse

c)

Giorgio de Chirico

d)

Amedeo Modigliani

69.

Which movement portrays subjects with geometric forms like lines, planes, and angles?

a)

Cubism

b)

Futurism

c)

Mechanical Style

d)

Non-objectivism

70.

Who is the Cubist artist known for geometric abstraction?

a)

Amedeo Modigliani

b)

Ben Shahn

c)

Georges Braque

d)

Pablo Picasso

71.

Which of the following elements is dominant in Cubism?

a)

Line

b)

Space

c)

Masses

d)

Shapes

72.

Which art style avoids realistic representation and focuses on ideas?

a)

Abstractionism

b)

Expressionism

c)

Impressionism

d)

Neo-Classicism

73.

Why was Abstractionism revolutionary?

a)

It imitated ancient art

b)

It rejected emotion

c)

It broke away from recognizable subjects

d)

It used only landscapes

74.

Which art movement uses dreamlike, irrational images?

a)

Expressionism

b)

Impressionism

c)

Neo-Primitivism

d)

Surrealism

75.

Which is the best example of a Surrealist artwork?

a)

Realistic portrait

b)

Dot landscape

c)

Cityscape in perspective

d)

Dreamlike scene with floating objects

76.

Which art style was known for chaotic, nonsensical design as protest?

a)

Dadaism

b)

Fauvism

c)

Surrealism

d)

Realism

77.

Neo-Primitivism is part of what larger movement?

a)

Abstract Art

b)

Expressionism

c)

Impressionism

d)

Minimalism

78.

Which principle of design did Op Art often use to create illusions?

a)

Balance

b)

Contrast

c)

Rhythm

d)

Unity

79.

Which artist focused on social reform through art?

a)

Ben Shahn

b)

Pablo Picasso

c)

Salvador Dalí

d)

Henri Matisse

80.

What does Installation Art emphasize?

a)

Use of body movements

b)

Space and materials in new ways

c)

Religious symbolism

d)

Optical illusions

81.

What is the main goal of physical fitness tests?

a)

To compare abilities with others

b)

To avoid doing strenuous activities

c)

To entertain students during PE class

d)

To evaluate one’s level of fitness and health

82.

What do we call the energy burned through physical activity?

a)

Energy Absorption

b)

Energy Expenditure

c)

Energy Intake

d)

Energy Recovery

83.

Which fitness component is developed by doing yoga regularly?

a)

Agility

b)

Coordination

c)

Flexibility

d)

Muscular Endurance

84.

A coach is selecting a player for fencing or basketball. Which fitness component should be prioritized?

a)

Agility

b)

Balance

c)

Coordination

d)

Power

85.

The amount of fat cells compared with lean cells in the body is called:

a)

Body Composition

b)

Cardiovascular Fitness

c)

Flexibility

d)

Muscle Endurance

86.

The amount of force the muscle can produce is called:

a)

Agility

b)

Muscle Endurance

c)

Power

d)

Strength

87.

The ability to change position of the body quickly and control movements is:

a)

Balance

b)

Coordination

c)

Agility

d)

Power

88.

Which activity best develops cardiovascular endurance?

a)

Brisk walking

b)

Push-ups

c)

Stretching

d)

Weightlifting

89.

Which exercise best develops coordination?

a)

Balance beam walk

b)

Jump rope

c)

Agility ladder

d)

Power lifting

90.

The ability to respond quickly to a stimulus is called:

a)

Power

b)

Strength

c)

Speed

d)

Reaction Time

91.

Which best describes a healthy eating habit?

a)

Eating at irregular times

b)

Skipping breakfast to lose weight

c)

Eating junk food while watching TV

d)

Choosing fruits and vegetables regularly

92.

What does it mean if someone is classified as underweight (BMI)?

a)

They are physically strong

b)

They have too much muscle

c)

They are more flexible

d)

Their weight is below the healthy range

93.

This is a typical pattern of daily behavior at home, school, or work:

a)

Health habits

b)

Lifestyle

c)

Physical activities

d)

Recreational activities

94.

What lifestyle behavior reduces risk of non-communicable diseases?

a)

Sleeping all day

b)

Skipping meals

c)

Drinking soda daily

d)

Eating balanced meals and being active

95.

Raymond eats junk food while watching TV. His risk factors are:

a)

Eye strain and loud noise

b)

Sedentary lifestyle and poor eating

c)

Increased risk of lifestyle diseases

d)

Lack of exercise and nutrition

96.

The way in which an individual lives is called:

a)

Eating habits

b)

Weight management

c)

Food choice

d)

Lifestyle

97.

Which factors can be modified to prevent diseases?

a)

Nutrition, physical activity, body weight

b)

Age, heredity, sex

c)

Gender, height, race

d)

None of the above

98.

In order to lose weight safely, one should:

a)

Never eat sweets

b)

Eat only sugar-free sweets

c)

Eat only fat-free sweets

d)

Eat smaller amounts of sweets less often

99.

Which behavior is NOT a benefit of sports participation?

a)

Improved quality of life

b)

Increased self-confidence

c)

Stress relief

d)

Sleeping all day

100.

What is the correct prevention of sports injuries?

a)

Warm-up before games

b)

Drinking energy drinks

c)

Sleeping eight hours

d)

Meditation

101.

James is 26, 70kg, 1.68m. His BMI and category are:

a)

24.8 – Normal

b)

28.5 – Overweight

c)

22.5 – Normal

d)

30.2 – Obese

102.

BMI stands for:

a)

Body Max Intermittent

b)

Body Mass Index

c)

Body Meal Index

d)

None of the above

103.

Defined as body mass ÷ height² (kg/m²):

a)

THR

b)

RHR

c)

BMI

d)

HRmax

104.

Jonathan has BMI = 31.0. His classification is:

a)

Underweight

b)

Obese

c)

Overweight

d)

Normal

105.

Kyle’s height 150cm, weight 45kg. BMI?

a)

20.0 – Normal

b)

18.5 – Normal

c)

22.2 – Normal

d)

16.8 – Underweight

106.

Claude’s height 168cm, weight 62kg. BMI?

a)

21.9 – Normal

b)

24.0 – Normal

c)

25.3 – Overweight

d)

19.8 – Normal

107.

Resting heart rate 70 bpm, 28-year-old at 70% intensity. Training HR?

a)

155 bpm

b)

160 bpm

c)

171 bpm

d)

176 bpm

108.

Josh is 19 years old with a resting heart rate (RHR) of 69 bpm. Using the formula

THR = RHR × Zone + (MHR – P.A – RHR) (with P.A = 0) at 50% training intensity (novice level), what is his Training Heart Rate (THR)?

a)

162 bpm

b)

165 bpm

c)

167 bpm

d)

170 bpm

109.

Leila is 41 years old with a resting heart rate of 69 bpm. At 50% intensity, what is her training heart rate (THR)?

a)

140 bpm

b)

145 bpm

c)

150 bpm

d)

155 bpm

110.

A 13-year-old athlete has a resting heart rate of 68 bpm. At 78% intensity, what is his training heart rate (THR)?

a)

185 bpm

b)

188 bpm

c)

192 bpm

d)

196 bpm

111.

Muscle endurance test: push-up; Cardiovascular fitness test:

a)

Bending

b)

Jogging

c)

Skin fold

d)

Squat

112.

Most important skill mastered by all basketball players:

a)

Dribbling

b)

Catching

c)

Passing

d)

All of the above

113.

Which activity is done during leisure for relaxation and enjoyment?

a)

Active recreation

b)

Physical fitness tests

c)

Eating habits

d)

Recreational activity

114.

Two main equipment in badminton are:

a)

Shuttlecock & racket

b)

Net & pole

c)

Court & shoes

d)

Whistle & scoreboard

115.

What is one safety precaution before playing volleyball?

a)

Drinking energy drinks

b)

Doing stretching and warm-ups

c)

Playing without shoes

d)

Skipping meals

116.

Which is the main objective of sports and recreational activities?

a)

To develop skills, health, and enjoyment

b)

To win at all costs

c)

To replace academics

d)

To avoid physical activity

117.

2. These are structured physical activities or games governed by rules and played for competition, fitness, or recreation.

a)

Exercise

b)

Recreation

c)

Tournament

d)

Sport

118.

Why are recreational activities important for mental health?

a)

They increase blood pressure.

b)

They promote social isolation.

c)

They eliminate the need for sleep.

d)

They reduce stress and improve mood.

119.

Which factor is most important when evaluating the health benefits of a recreational activity?

a)

The number of participants.

b)

The popularity of the activity.

c)

The brand of equipment used

d)

The level of physical and mental engagement.

120.

What does the continued practice of Laro ng Lahi suggest about Filipino culture

a)

It is resistant to change

b)

It values imported games more.

c)

It discourages outdoor activities.

d)

It preserves traditions while adapting to modern contexts.

121.

Which of the following is the most reliable source of health information?

a)

Celebrity endorsements

b)

Licensed physicians

c)

Social media posts

d)

Gossip from friends

122.

The best way to check if a health product is safe is to look for its __________.

a)

Colorful packaging

b)

Expiration date

c)

Price tag

d)

Catchy slogan

123.

Which statement best describes a quack product?

a)

It is scientifically tested.

b)

It uses misleading claims to sell.

c)

It has government approval.

d)

It is prescribed by doctors.

124.

A valid prescription medicine should be bought only from __________.

a)

Supermarkets

b)

Accredited pharmacies

c)

Street vendors

d)

Online chat groups

125.

The main purpose of evaluating health information is to __________.

a)

Entertain people

b)

Avoid health scams

c)

Increase product cost

d)

Follow trends

126.

Which is the most important criterion when choosing health services?

a)

Popularity

b)

Accessibility

c)

Low cost only

d)

Celebrity endorsement

127.

A pediatrician is a doctor who specializes in treating __________.

a)

Children

b)

Elderly

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Athletes

128.

Which health professional specializes in teeth and oral care?

a)

Dermatologist

b)

Dentist

c)

Neurologist

d)

Cardiologist

129.

PhilHealth is an example of a __________.

a)

Health insurance program

b)

Fitness club

c)

Hospital equipment supplier

d)

Pharmacy chain

130.

Which healthcare plan allows members to pay in advance for services through accredited providers?

a)

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

b)

Public hospital charity ward

c)

Volunteer services

d)

Private nurse hire

131.

Midwives are primary health care providers who assist especially in __________.

a)

Nutrition planning

b)

Childbirth

c)

Dentistry

d)

Vision care

132.

A doctor who specializes in skin diseases is called a __________.

a)

Oncologist

b)

Dermatologist

c)

Pulmonologist

d)

Endocrinologist

133.

Which government agency protects consumers from false advertisements?

a)

Department of Health (DOH)

b)

Department of Trade and Industry (DTI)

c)

Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)

d)

Department of Education (DepEd)

134.

RA 7394, also known as the Consumer Act of the Philippines, aims to __________.

a)

Increase taxes

b)

Protect consumer rights

c)

Regulate social media

d)

Ban imports

135.

Which organization primarily manages the country’s public health services?

a)

Department of Health (DOH)

b)

Department of Tourism (DOT)

c)

Department of Energy (DOE)

d)

Department of Justice (DOJ)

136.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) ensures that __________.

a)

Schools provide nutrition classes

b)

Food, drugs, and cosmetics are safe

c)

Hospitals offer free check-ups

d)

Farmers use organic fertilizers

137.

Which organization is responsible for international public health and outbreaks?

a)

WHO

b)

UNESCO

c)

ASEAN

d)

UNDP

138.

Consumer laws are important because they __________.

a)

Encourage overspending

b)

Protect public health

c)

Promote risky products

d)

Support illegal trade

139.

Acupuncture is a traditional Chinese practice that uses __________.

a)

Herbal teas

b)

Fine needles

c)

Hot stones

d)

Massage oils

140.

Reflexology is a therapy that applies pressure mainly on the __________.

a)

Stomach

b)

Hands and feet

c)

Back and shoulders

d)

Head

141.

Which practice uses scented essential oils for relaxation?

a)

Aromatherapy

b)

Acupuncture

c)

Yoga

d)

Meditation

142.

Which alternative practice involves slow body movements and breathing exercises?

a)

Zumba

b)

Tai Chi

c)

Reflexology

d)

Pilates

143.

A person insists on using only herbal medicine without medical consultation. What risk is involved

a)

Better diet

b)

Enhanced fitness

c)

Accurate diagnosis

d)

Delayed or unsafe treatment

144.

A common benefit of alternative health practices like yoga and meditation is __________.

a)

Increased stress levels

b)

Improved relaxation

c)

Higher food intake

d)

Riskier lifestyle choices

145.

Which lifestyle habit increases the risk of lung cancer?

a)

Jogging

b)

Smoking

c)

Reading

d)

Drinking water

146.

High intake of salty foods may lead to __________.

a)

Hypertension

b)

Influenza

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Appendicitis

147.

Which disease is characterized by high blood sugar levels?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Asthma

c)

Anemia

d)

Arthritis

148.

Which is the best preventive measure against obesity?

a)

Eating balanced meals and exercising

b)

Skipping breakfast daily

c)

Avoiding all carbohydrates

d)

Eating fast food often

149.

Which organ is most affected by excessive alcohol consumption?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Heart

d)

Lung

150.

Which factor is NOT considered a lifestyle disease risk?

a)

Smoking

b)

Lack of exercise

c)

Overeating

d)

Adequate sleep

151.

Mrs. Sandoval works in a big company. Marie, an Insurance Agent, is a close friend of hers. One day, Marie asked Mrs. Sandoval to visit her at home to introduce the insurance products. While she was introducing her products, she started to give negative comments about other insurances.

a)

Right to choose

b)

Right to safety

c)

Right to information

d)

Right to consumer education

152.

Which of the following is NOT a wise consumer tip?

a)

Compare product details

b)

Gather accurate information

c)

Inquire and review

d)

Trust educational institutions blindly

153.

Carlo bought a brand-new electric kettle. After two weeks, it stopped working even though he used it properly. The store refused to replace it or return his money. Which consumer right was violated?

a)

Right to safety

b)

Right to redress

c)

Right to basic needs

d)

Right to a healthy environment

154.

Liza went to the market to buy vegetables. The vendor sold her vegetables sprayed with harmful pesticides without informing her. Which consumer right was violated?

a)

Right to safety

b)

Right to representation

c)

Right to choose

d)

Right to consumer education

155.

A big supermarket placed only one brand of milk on their shelves, limiting the options for buyers. Which consumer right is affected?

a)

Right to information

b)

Right to representation

c)

Right to choose

d)

Right to consumer education

156.

During a barangay meeting, residents raised their complaints about overpriced rice in the local store. The officials promised to bring the issue to the Department of Trade and Industry (DTI). Which right were the residents practicing?

a)

Right to redress

b)

Right to representation

c)

Right to safety

d)

Right to consumer education

157.

Joanna attended a seminar organized by the Department of Health about the effects of unhealthy food and sugary drinks. Which right is being promoted?

a)

Right to basic needs

b)

Right to information

c)

Right to safety

d)

Right to consumer education

158.

Fred buys a device online that claims to detect all illnesses by scanning his palm. What type of quackery is this?

a)

Device Quackery

b)

Medical Quackery

c)

Nutritional Quackery

d)

Psychological Quackery

159.

You found an online ad claiming to "cure all diseases in a week." What should be your first action as a wise health consumer?

a)

Buy before stocks run out.

b)

Immediately share it online.

c)

Trust the seller’s appearance.

d)

Check the product’s scientific basis.

160.

Why should consumers exercise the right to redress?

a)

It improves product packaging.

b)

It gives feedback to the government.

c)

It protects children from food hazards.

d)

It ensures fair treatment when wronged.

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