wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PERFORMANCE CHEK YIA 2025

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According AIRAC AIP SUP Nr: 21/25, Operating Hours Aerodrome Operator WAHI is ?

a)

23.00 UTC until 14.00 UTC

b)

22.30 UTC until 12.30 UTC

c)

H24

d)

21.30 UTC until 10.30 UTC

2.

A station in the aeronautical fixed service, is called…

a)

Aeronautical fixed service

b)

Aeronautical fixed telecommunication

c)

Aeronautical fixed station

d)

Aeronautical station

3.

An AFTN station whose primary function is the relay or retransmission of AFTN traffic from (or to) a number of the other AFTN station connected to it, is called…

a)

AFTN origin station

b)

AFTN communication center

c)

AFTN station

d)

AFTN destination station

4.

How many catagories or message shall be handled by the AFTN……

a)

21 messages

b)

10 messages

c)

6 messages

d)

8 messages

5.

Aeronautical administrative messages (priority indicator KK) shall comprise, except :

a)

messages regarding the operation or maintenance of facilities provided for the safety or regularity of aircraft operations;

b)

messages concerning the functioning of aeronautical telecommunication services;

c)

messages exchanged between civil aviation authorities relating to aeronautical services.

d)

messages concerning observations and reports, e.g. METAR, SPEC

6.

What is the priority indicator of SNOWTAM..

a)

FF

b)

GG

c)

DD

d)

KK

7.

The teletypewrinter message format shall comprise the following parts

a)

Starting pulse, heading, address, origin, text, ending

b)

Heading, address,origin, text, ending.

c)

Address, origin, text, ending

d)

Address, origin, text ending with the exception of the message separation signal

8.

A combination of the characters ZCZC, is called…

a)

Start-of-message signal

b)

Starting pulse

c)

Transmission identification

d)

Tape-feed sequence

9.

The priority alarm signal of a message received is shown by the following component part of the message…

a)

Heading

b)

Address Line

c)

Origin Line

d)

Text

10.

ICAO three – letter designator for aircraft in flight is…

a)

ZZZ

b)

ZCZ

c)

ZTZ

d)

ZQZ

11.

AFTN message entered by the AFTN origin station shall not exceed….characters in leght

a)

4200

b)

2100

c)

1800

d)

2700

12.

Text in AFTN messages cannot more than…

a)

1800 characters

b)

2100 characters

c)

1800 alphabet

d)

2100 alphabet

13.

The circuit identification shall consist of…

a)

The characters ZCZC, the transmitting terminal letter, the receiving terminal letter

b)

The receiving terminal letter, the transmitting terminal letter, the channel identification letter

c)

The starting pulse, the receiving terminal letter, the transmitting terminal letter

d)

three letter selected and assigned by the trasmmiting station

14.

The second letter the of the circuit identification identified…

a)

The transmitting of the circuit

b)

The receiving of the circuit

c)

The channel identification letter

d)

The channel sequence number

15.

Meteorological advice of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight or the aircraft about to depart, the priority indicator is

a)

GG

b)

SS

c)

KK

d)

FF

16.

A method in which telecommunication between two station can take place in both direction simultaneously, is called…

a)

Simplex

b)

Duplex

c)

Ground to air communication

d)

Air to air communication

17.

When a message is to be addressed to a military service or organizarion, the location indicator of destination shall be followed by the three letter designator…

a)

YYY

b)

ZZZ

c)

YXY

d)

ZXZ

18.

The use of ICAO approved abbreviations and codes wherever appropriate, those contained in

a)

Document 8400

b)

Document 8585

c)

Document 7900

d)

Annex 10 volume II chapter 4 – aeronautical fixed service

19.

A unit established for the purpose of receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before departure is a definition for :

a)

Air traffic services reporting office

b)

Area Control Centre

c)

Flight Information Centre

d)

Flight Operation or Flight Dispatch

20.

In WBF Address indicator for Jakarta FIR is

a)

WIIIZQZA

b)

WIIFZQZA

c)

WIIIZTZX

d)

WIIIZPZX

21.

Address indicator for Kualalumpur FIR is

a)

WMFCZQZX

b)

WMKKZQZX

c)

WMKKZPZX

d)

WMKJZQZX

22.

In WBF Address indicator for Ujung Pandang FIR is

a)

WAAAZQZX

b)

WAAFZQZA

c)

WAAAZTZX

d)

WAAAZPZX

23.

A special series of NOTAM provides information of a change in the activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption, or volcanic ash cloud that is significance to aircraft operations is

a)

METAR

b)

ASHTAM

c)

SNOWTAM

d)

BIRDTAM

24.

In a Flight Plan, what information should be entered in item 8

a)

Equipment on board

b)

Aircraft identification

c)

Flight rules and type of flight

d)

Departure of aerodrome and estimated of block time

25.

The correct cruising speed writing in item 15 is as follow, except

a)

R290

b)

M082

c)

N0450

d)

K0830

26.

The correct cruising level writing in item 15 is as follow, except

a)

F160

b)

M850

c)

A080

d)

A100

27.

DEP message must be sent to

a)

Meteorological office of destination aerodrome

b)

The whole FIR even though it doesn't go trough

c)

All ATS unit that received previous FPL

d)

ATFM unit of destination aerodrome

28.

The address for Singapore FIR with delivery via Web Base FPL is

a)

WSSSZQZX

b)

WSJCZQZX

c)

WSSLQZX

d)

WASSZQZX

29.

Refer to AIRAC AIP AMDT 95, for sending delay message which the new EOBT passes 00.00 UTC with new date of flight use message format

a)

DLA

b)

CHG

c)

CNL

d)

DEP

30.

If a aircrew create FPL and he write letter “L” on item 9 ( wake turbulence category) the mean

a)

The aircraft type with a maximum certificated take off mass of 136.000 kg or more

b)

The aircraft type with a maximum certificated take off mass of less than 136.000 kg but more than 7.000 kg

c)

The aircraft type with a maximum certificated take off mass of less than 100.000 kg but more than 7.000 kg

d)

The aircraft type with a maximum certificated take off mass of 7.000 kg or less

31.

In providing flight data distribution service fasilities ATS RO YIA is

a)

STREAM

b)

ATIS

c)

AFTN and WBF

d)

CHRONOS

32.

How the maximum characters in item 7 (Aircraft Identifacation)

a)

12

b)

7

c)

8

d)

4

33.

The one of content Type of flight (item 8) in FPL Form is “S, N, G, M or X”. What the mean letter “G” is

a)

Scheduled air service

  

b)

Military

c)

General aviation

d)

Non scheduled air transport operation

34.

The channel sequence number consists of three digits from

a)

000 to 100

   

b)

001 to 000 (representing 1000)

c)

000 to 000 (representing 1000)

d)

001 to 001

35.

CHG-PKCAO-WAHI0620-WIII-DOF/250201-13/WAHI0600 -15/N0380F300 CLP W17 IMU This form of the text of a service message indicates a:

a)

Modification message of EOBT

b)

Change Message

c)

Departure message

d)

Modification message of EOBT, route and altitude

36.

According to Doc4444/ATM, Flight Plan shall not be submitted more than?

a)

120 hours prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

b)

24 hours prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

c)

120 minutes prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

d)

60 minutes prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

37.

     According Annex 11, When an area control or a flight information centre,decides that an aircraft is in the uncertainty or the alert phase, it shall ..

a)

When practicable, advise the operator prior to notifying

the rescue coordination centre

b)

Give information to journalist

c)

Make a press conference

d)

Make coordination with DGCA

38.

B0089/25 NOTAMN         [ Erected Obstacle ]
Q)WAAF/QOBCE/IV/M/AE/000/999/0754S11002E001
A)WAHI B)2501272300 C)2502282300
E)OBSTACLE CRANE ERECTED HGT 46FT PSN ON COORD AS FLW :
-075404.8S1100146.2E
-075357.5S1100149.7E

from the notam above, when will the notam ended?

a)

january 27, 2025 at 23.00 utc

b)

january 28, 2025 at 23.00 utc

c)

february 28, 2025 at 23.00 utc

d)

february 27, 2025 at 23.00 utc

39.

Item 15 in ICAO model Flight plan form is describe:

a)

Cruising Speed, Cruising Level and Route

b)

Departure aerodrome and Time

c)

Other Information

d)

Aircraft Identification

40.

According Doc 4444/ATM , the validity period of the Flight Plan is ?

a)

30 minutes after EOBT

b)

60 minutes after EOBT

c)

90 minutes after EOBT

d)

120 minutes after EOBT

41.

TAF WAHI 130500Z 1306/1318 00000KT 7000 SCT020

BECMG 1314/1316 11005KT=

According this message TAF is mean?

a)

Terminal Aerodrome Forcast

b)

Terminal Aeronautical Forcast

c)

Temporary Aerodrome Forcast

d)

Tower Aerodrome Forcast

42.

The transmission identification shall comprise …

 

a)

Starting pulse, circuit identification, channel sequence number, spacing signal

b)

Circuit identification, channel sequence number

c)

Starting pulse, circuit identification, channel sequence number

d)

Circuit identification, channel sequence number, spacing signal

43.

A combination of the characters ZCZC, is called

a)

Starting pulse

b)

Transmission identification

c)

Start-of-message signal

d)

Tape-feed sequence

44.

An aeronautical fixed station that may receive or transmit message and/or digital data but which doesn't relay except for the purpose of serving similiar stations connected through it to a communication center is

4 lines
45.

If there are Non Indonesia registration aircraft operating in Indonesia territory , the aircraft must have ....

4 lines
46.

Mention addressee should be add in FPL if there is an aircraft from YIA to Seletar Airport?

4 lines
47.

Based on AIRAC AIP AMDT 151 03 oct 2024, what time is the runway inspection scheduled at YIA

4 lines
48.

The SSR code for hijack is

4 lines
49.

In the Flight Plan format, what is meant by flght rule Y is ?

a)

if the flight initially will be operated under the IFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules

b)

if the flight initially will be operated under the VFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules

c)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under IFR

d)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under VFR

50.

Three letter designator for ATS Reporting Office is ?

a)

ZQZ

b)

ZAZ

c)

ZPZ

d)

YOY