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WorksheetsPhysiology Prelim Review
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best defines homeostasis?
a)
The process of maintaining a stable internal environment
b)
A state where all physiological variables remain constant
c)
The ability of an organism to adapt to any external change
d)
A state of dynamic disequilibrium
2.
Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting nutrients, gases, and wastes?
a)
Cardiovascular system
b)
Digestive system
c)
Nervous system
d)
Respiratory system
3.
Which level of structural organization is immediately higher than the cellular level?
a)
Tissue
b)
Organ
c)
Organ system
d)
Chemical
4.
Which type of feedback mechanism is involved in blood clotting?
a)
Positive feedback
b)
Negative feedback
c)
Neutral feedback
d)
Homeostatic balance
5.
The smallest functional unit of life is the:
a)
Cell
b)
Molecule
c)
Atom
d)
Tissue
6.
What is the primary function of the integumentary system?
a)
Protect against external harm
b)
Provide structural support
c)
Regulate metabolism
d)
Facilitate gas exchange
7.
Which term describes the ability of an organism to sense changes in its environment and react accordingly?
a)
Responsiveness
b)
Metabolism
c)
Differentiation
d)
Homeostasis
8.
Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?
a)
Thoracic cavity
b)
Abdominal cavity
c)
Pelvic cavity
d)
Cranial cavity
9.
Which type of membrane lines body cavities that open to the exterior?
a)
Mucous membrane
b)
Synovial membrane
c)
Serous membrane
d)
Cutaneous membrane
10.
What is the main purpose of negative feedback mechanisms?
a)
To maintain homeostasis by reducing deviations
b)
To amplify the original stimulus
c)
To eliminate physiological variables
d)
To trigger an immediate immune response
11.
Which of the following best defines homeostasis?
a)
The process of maintaining a stable internal environment
b)
A state where all physiological variables remain constant
c)
The ability of an organism to adapt to any external change
d)
A state of dynamic disequilibrium
12.
Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting nutrients, gases, and wastes?
a)
Cardiovascular system
b)
Nervous system
c)
Digestive system
d)
Respiratory system
13.
Which level of structural organization is immediately higher than the cellular level?
a)
Tissue
b)
Chemical
c)
Organ
d)
Organ system
14.
Which type of feedback mechanism is involved in blood clotting?
a)
Positive feedback
b)
Negative feedback
c)
Neutral feedback
d)
Homeostatic balance
15.
The smallest functional unit of life is the:
a)
Cell
b)
Atom
c)
Molecule
d)
Tissue
16.
What is the primary function of the integumentary system?
a)
Protect against external harm
b)
Regulate metabolism
c)
Provide structural support
d)
Facilitate gas exchange
17.
Which term describes the ability of an organism to sense changes in its environment and react accordingly?
a)
Responsiveness
b)
Metabolism
c)
Differentiation
d)
Homeostasis
18.
Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?
a)
Thoracic cavity
b)
Abdominal cavity
c)
Pelvic cavity
d)
Cranial cavity
19.
Which type of membrane lines body cavities that open to the exterior?
a)
Mucous membrane
b)
Serous membrane
c)
Synovial membrane
d)
Cutaneous membrane
20.
What is the main purpose of negative feedback mechanisms?
a)
To maintain homeostasis by reducing deviations
b)
To amplify the original stimulus
c)
To eliminate physiological variables
d)
To trigger an immediate immune response
21.
Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration?
a)
Mitochondrion
b)
Nucleus
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi apparatus
22.
What is the primary function of ribosomes?
a)
Protein synthesis
b)
Lipid metabolism
c)
DNA replication
d)
Energy production
23.
Which cell structure acts as a selective barrier, controlling the movement of substances in and out of the cell?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cell wall
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic reticulum
24.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is involved in which cellular process?
a)
Protein synthesis and modification
b)
Lipid synthesis
c)
ATP production
d)
Cell division
25.
Which organelle is responsible for modifying, packaging, and transporting proteins?
a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
Lysosome
c)
Peroxisome
d)
Nucleolus
26.
What is the function of lysosomes in a eukaryotic cell?
a)
Breakdown of cellular waste and foreign materials
b)
Energy production
c)
Protein synthesis
d)
DNA replication
27.
Which component of the cytoskeleton is primarily responsible for intracellular transport and cell shape maintenance?
a)
Microtubules
b)
Actin filaments
c)
Intermediate filaments
d)
Peroxisomes
28.
What is the primary role of cholesterol in the cell membrane?
a)
Maintaining membrane fluidity
b)
Facilitating active transport
c)
Acting as a receptor
d)
Producing ATP
29.
Which structure in the nucleus is responsible for ribosome production?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Nuclear envelope
c)
Chromatin
d)
Centriole
30.
What is the primary function of peroxisomes?
a)
Breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification of harmful substances
b)
Protein synthesis
c)
ATP production
d)
DNA storage
31.
Which type of transport requires energy in the form of ATP?
a)
Active transport
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Simple diffusion
d)
Osmosis
32.
Which transport mechanism allows water to move across the cell membrane?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Simple diffusion
33.
Which type of transport moves molecules down their concentration gradient without the use of energy?
a)
Passive transport
b)
Active transport
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis
34.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules move across the membrane with the help of which structure?
a)
Transport proteins
b)
Phospholipids
c)
Cholesterol
d)
Ribosomes
35.
The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions in which direction?
a)
3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in
b)
2 Na⁺ out, 3 K⁺ in
c)
3 Na⁺ in, 2 K⁺ out
d)
Equal amounts of Na⁺ and K⁺ in both directions
36.
Which process involves the engulfing of large particles by the cell membrane?
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Pinocytosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Facilitated diffusion
37.
Which type of vesicular transport moves materials out of the cell?
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Pinocytosis
d)
Osmosis
38.
What is the main difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
a)
Facilitated diffusion requires a transport protein
b)
Simple diffusion requires ATP
c)
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules against the gradient
d)
Simple diffusion only transports water
39.
What happens to a red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution?
a)
It shrinks
b)
It swells
c)
It bursts
d)
No change
40.
Which transport mechanism is used by glucose to enter most cells?
a)
Facilitated diffusion
b)
Simple diffusion
c)
Osmosis
d)
Phagocytosis
41.
What is the main energy currency of the cell?
a)
ATP
b)
NADH
c)
Glucose
d)
ADP
42.
In which organelle does aerobic respiration primarily occur?
a)
Mitochondrion
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Ribosome
d)
Endoplasmic reticulum
43.
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP?
a)
Electron transport chain
b)
Glycolysis
c)
Krebs cycle
d)
Fermentation
44.
What is the net ATP yield from glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
6 ATP
d)
8 ATP
45.
What molecule serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
NADH
d)
Glucose
46.
Which process generates ATP without oxygen?
a)
Anaerobic respiration
b)
Oxidative phosphorylation
c)
Krebs cycle
d)
Electron transport chain
47.
What is the primary purpose of the Krebs cycle?
a)
To generate high-energy electron carriers
b)
To produce ATP directly
c)
To break down ATP
d)
To synthesize glucose
48.
Which macromolecule provides the most energy per gram when metabolized?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
49.
What happens to pyruvate in the absence of oxygen?
a)
It undergoes fermentation
b)
It enters the Krebs cycle
c)
It is converted to acetyl-CoA
d)
It is used in oxidative phosphorylation
50.
Which enzyme is responsible for ATP synthesis in the electron transport chain?
a)
ATP synthase
b)
Hexokinase
c)
Phosphofructokinase
d)
Cytochrome C oxidase
51.
What percentage of total body weight is composed of water in an average adult male?
a)
0.6
b)
0.4
c)
0.7
d)
0.8
52.
Which compartment contains the largest amount of total body water?
a)
Intracellular fluid (ICF)
b)
Extracellular fluid (ECF)
c)
Plasma
d)
Interstitial fluid
53.
Which of the following is a major component of extracellular fluid (ECF)?
a)
Plasma and interstitial fluid
b)
Cytosol and organelle fluid
c)
Lymph and cerebrospinal fluid
d)
Synovial fluid and pericardial fluid
54.
What is the main cation found in intracellular fluid (ICF)?
a)
Potassium (K⁺)
b)
Sodium (Na⁺)
c)
Calcium (Ca²⁺)
d)
Chloride (Cl⁻)
55.
What is the primary force driving water movement between compartments?
a)
Osmotic pressure
b)
Hydrostatic pressure
c)
Diffusion
d)
Active transport
56.
Which fluid compartment directly exchanges substances with the blood plasma?
a)
Interstitial fluid
b)
Intracellular fluid
c)
Lymph
d)
Transcellular fluid
57.
Which hormone plays a key role in regulating extracellular fluid volume?
a)
Aldosterone
b)
Insulin
c)
Glucagon
d)
Calcitonin
58.
What happens to extracellular fluid volume during dehydration?
a)
It decreases
b)
It increases
c)
It remains unchanged
d)
It fluctuates randomly
59.
Which process moves water across cell membranes to balance solute concentration?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Filtration
c)
Active transport
d)
Endocytosis
60.
What percentage of total body water is found in extracellular fluid?
a)
0.33
b)
0.66
c)
0.5
d)
0.1
61.
What is the primary driving force of diffusion?
a)
Concentration gradient
b)
ATP
c)
Membrane permeability
d)
Hydrostatic pressure
62.
What type of transport is diffusion classified as?
a)
Passive transport
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated transport
d)
Endocytosis
63.
In osmosis, water moves from an area of ___.
a)
Low solute concentration to high solute concentration
b)
High solute concentration to low solute concentration
c)
High pressure to low pressure
d)
Low osmolarity to high pressure
64.
Which factor does NOT affect the rate of diffusion?
a)
ATP availability
b)
Temperature
c)
Molecular size
d)
Surface area
65.
Which term describes a solution with a lower solute concentration than the cell?
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Osmotic
66.
What happens to a red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution?
a)
It shrinks
b)
It swells
c)
It bursts
d)
It remains unchanged
67.
What type of diffusion requires membrane proteins but no energy?
a)
Facilitated diffusion
b)
Simple diffusion
c)
Active transport
d)
Osmosis
68.
Which of the following molecules can pass through the cell membrane by simple diffusion?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Glucose
c)
Sodium ions
d)
Amino acids
69.
What is the main role of aquaporins in osmosis?
a)
Facilitate water movement across membranes
b)
Pump ions into the cell
c)
Generate ATP
d)
Transport glucose
70.
If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, what happens?
a)
No net water movement
b)
Water moves into the cell
c)
Water moves out of the cell
d)
The cell bursts
71.
What is the typical resting membrane potential of a neuron?
a)
-70 mV
b)
+30 mV
c)
0 mV
d)
-90 mV
72.
Which ion is most responsible for maintaining the resting membrane potential?
a)
Potassium (K⁺)
b)
Sodium (Na⁺)
c)
Calcium (Ca²⁺)
d)
Chloride (Cl⁻)
73.
What is the primary role of the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump?
a)
Maintain ion gradients by pumping Na⁺ out and K⁺ in
b)
Depolarize the membrane
c)
Generate an action potential
d)
Close voltage-gated channels
74.
What happens when a neuron reaches the threshold potential?
a)
An action potential is generated
b)
The cell hyperpolarizes
c)
The resting potential is restored
d)
The Na⁺/K⁺ pump stops working
75.
During depolarization, which ion moves into the neuron?
a)
Sodium (Na⁺)
b)
Potassium (K⁺)
c)
Chloride (Cl⁻)
d)
Calcium (Ca²⁺)
76.
What occurs during the repolarization phase of an action potential?
a)
K⁺ exits the cell
b)
Na⁺ enters the cell
c)
The membrane potential remains the same
d)
The neuron releases neurotransmitters
77.
What is the refractory period?
a)
A period when another action potential cannot occur
b)
A phase of rapid depolarization
c)
A period of neurotransmitter release
d)
The moment the cell reaches threshold
78.
What type of ion channels are responsible for the initiation of an action potential?
a)
Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels
b)
Ligand-gated K⁺ channels
c)
Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump
d)
Voltage-gated Cl⁻ channels
79.
What is the function of myelin in action potential conduction?
a)
Increases conduction speed
b)
Blocks ion movement
c)
Prevents depolarization
d)
Decreases neurotransmitter release
80.
What is saltatory conduction?
a)
Action potentials jumping from node to node along a myelinated axon
b)
A slow continuous conduction along an unmyelinated axon
c)
The release of neurotransmitters
d)
The process of repolarization
81.
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber?
a)
Sarcomere
b)
Myofibril
c)
Muscle fiber
d)
Fascicle
82.
Which protein binds to calcium to initiate muscle contraction?
a)
Troponin
b)
Tropomyosin
c)
Actin
d)
Myosin
83.
What role does ATP play in muscle contraction?
a)
Detaches myosin from actin
b)
Blocks calcium release
c)
Inhibits troponin
d)
Prevents depolarization
84.
Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
a)
Calcium (Ca²⁺)
b)
Sodium (Na⁺)
c)
Potassium (K⁺)
d)
Magnesium (Mg²⁺)
85.
What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction to initiate muscle contraction?
a)
Acetylcholine (ACh)
b)
Dopamine
c)
Glutamate
d)
Norepinephrine
86.
What happens to the sarcomere during muscle contraction?
a)
It shortens
b)
It lengthens
c)
It remains unchanged
d)
It disintegrates
87.
Which structure in the muscle fiber stores and releases calcium for contraction?
a)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b)
T-tubule
c)
Myosin head
d)
Golgi apparatus
88.
What is the primary energy source used during prolonged muscle activity?
a)
Aerobic metabolism of glucose
b)
ATP from creatine phosphate
c)
Anaerobic glycolysis
d)
Direct ATP hydrolysis
89.
What happens during muscle relaxation?
a)
Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b)
Myosin remains bound to actin
c)
ATP is depleted
d)
Acetylcholine release increases
90.
What is the name of the mechanism that explains how muscles contract?
a)
Sliding filament theory
b)
Lock and key model
c)
Proton motive force
d)
Cross-bridge cycling
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