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Cloud Computing (AWS-MODULE CHECK {6-10})

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying compute workloads?

a)

a) AWS offers free instances for all workloads.

b)

b) Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on-demand when needed.

c)

c) AWS automatically scales instances to match demand.

d)

d) AWS only charges for storage, not compute resources.

2.

If your project requires monthly reports that iterate through very large amounts of data, which Amazon EC2 purchasing option should you consider?

a)

a) On-Demand Instances

b)

b) Spot Instances

c)

c) Scheduled Reserved Instances

d)

d) Dedicated Hosts

3.

What is included in an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)?

a)

a) A template for the root volume for the instance.

b)

b) Launch permissions that control which AWS accounts can use the AMI to launch instances.

c)

c) A block device mapping that specifies the volumes to attach to the instance when it's launched.

d)

d) All of the above.

4.

Which Amazon EC2 feature ensures your instances will not share a physical host with instances from any other AWS customer?

a)

a) EC2 Spot Instances

b)

b) Dedicated Instances

c)

c) EC2 Reserved Instances

d)

d) Elastic IP

5.

Which of the following services is a serverless compute service in AWS?

a)

a) Amazon EC2

b)

b) AWS Lambda

c)

c) AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

d) Amazon ECS

6.

What is the service provided by AWS that enables developers to easily deploy and manage applications in the cloud?

a)

a) AWS CloudFormation

b)

b) AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

c) AWS EC2

d)

d) AWS CodeDeploy

7.

Your web application needs four instances to support steady traffic all of the time. On the last day of the month, the traffic triples. What is the most cost-effective way to handle this pattern?

a)

a) Run four Reserved Instances constantly, then add eight On-Demand Instances on the last day of each month.

b)

b) Run only On-Demand Instances all month.

c)

c) Run all instances as Spot Instances to minimize cost.

d)

d) Run three On-Demand Instances for the entire month and scale up manually on the last day.

8.

True or False? Containers contain an entire operating system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

Which Amazon EC2 option is best for long-term workload with predictable usage patterns?

a)

a) On-Demand Instances

b)

b) Spot Instances

c)

c) Reserved Instances

d)

d) Elastic IPs

10.

Which of the following must be specified when launching a new Amazon EC2 Windows instance? (Choose two.)

a)

a) Amazon EC2 instance type

b)

b) Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

c)

c) EC2 Key Pair

d)

d) EC2 instance size

11.

True or False? Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) is an object storage suitable for the storage of flat files like Microsoft Word documents, photos, etc.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

Amazon S3 replicates all objects _______.

a)

a) In multiple Availability Zones within the same region

b)

b) Across all AWS regions

c)

c) Within a single Availability Zone

d)

d) In the Amazon Glacier vault

13.

Which of the following can be used as a storage class for an object lifecycle policy? (Choose 3)

a)

a) S3 - Infrequent Access

b)

b) Simple Storage Service Glacier

c)

c) S3 - Standard Access

d)

d) S3 - Long-Term

14.

The name of an S3 bucket must be unique _______.

a)

a) Within the AWS account

b)

b) Within the region

c)

c) Worldwide across all AWS accounts

d)

d) Within the S3 service

15.

You can use Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) to:

a)

a) Store backup data for EC2 instances

b)

b) Implement storage for Amazon EC2 instances that multiple virtual machines can access

c)

c) Store persistent logs for Amazon Lambda functions

d)

d) Store data for Amazon S3 static websites

16.

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) is recommended when data _____ and _______. (Choose 2)

a)

a) Must be quickly accessible, requiring long-term persistence

b)

b) Requires encryption solution

c)

c) Is rarely accessed and needs low-cost storage

d)

d) Is static and can be archived

17.

By default, all data stored in Amazon S3 is viewable by the public.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

Regarding Amazon S3 Glacier, what is a Vault?

a)

a) A container for storing active files

b)

b) A container for storing archives

c)

c) A backup container for database snapshots

d)

d) A container for managing access permissions

19.

When you create a bucket in Amazon S3, it is associated with a specific AWS Region.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

Which of the following are features of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)? (Choose 2)

a)

a) Data stored on Amazon EBS is automatically replicated within an Availability Zone

b)

b) Amazon EBS volumes can be encrypted transparently to workloads on the attached instance

c)

c) EBS storage is globally distributed across all AWS regions

d)

d) EBS volumes are limited to 100GB in size

21.

You are designing an e-commerce web application that will scale to hundreds of thousands of concurrent users. What database technology is best suited to hold session state?

a)

a) Amazon RDS

b)

b) Amazon DynamoDB

c)

c) Amazon S3

d)

d) Amazon Aurora

22.

Amazon RDS automatically patches the database software and backs up your database storing the backups for a user-defined retention period and enabling point-in-time recovery.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

23.

You need to find an item in an Amazon DynamoDB table using an attribute other than the item's primary key.

a)

a) Query

b)

b) Scan

c)

c) GetItem

d)

d) Lookup

24.

In Amazon DynamoDB, what does the query operation enable you to do?

a)

a) Query a table using the partition key and an optional sort key filter

b)

b) Query any secondary indexes that exist for a table

c)

c) Efficiently retrieve items from a table or secondary index

d)

d) All of the above

25.

Which AWS cloud service is best suited for analyzing your data by using standard structured query language (SQL) and existing business intelligence (BI) tools?

a)

a) Amazon Athena

b)

b) Amazon Redshift

c)

c) Amazon RDS

d)

d) Amazon EMR

26.

In Amazon DynamoDB, an attribute is _______.

a)

a) A column in a relational database

b)

b) A fundamental data element

c)

c) A primary key for the table

d)

d) A type of secondary index

27.

If you are developing an application that requires a database with extremely fast performance, fast scalability, and flexibility in database schema, which service should you consider?

a)

a) Amazon Aurora

b)

b) Amazon RDS

c)

c) Amazon DynamoDB

d)

d) Amazon ElastiCache

28.

Which of the following use cases is appropriate for using Amazon Relational Database Services (Amazon RDS)?

a)

a) Complex transactions

b)

b) Storing session data

c)

c) Real-time analytics

d)

d) Unstructured data storage

29.

What should you consider when choosing a database type?

a)

a) Data size

b)

b) Data access period

c)

c) Query frequency

d)

d) High availability

e)

e) All of the above

30.

A company has an application, which consists of a .NET layer that connects to a MySQL database. They want to move this application to AWS and use AWS features such as high availability and automated backups. Which of the following would be an ideal database for this use case?

a)

a) Amazon RDS for MySQL

b)

b) Amazon DynamoDB

c)

c) Amazon Aurora

d)

d) Amazon Redshift

31.

Which of the following is not one of the four areas of the performance efficiency pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

a)

a) Scalability

b)

b) Traceability

c)

c) Monitoring

d)

d) Elasticity

32.

Which of the following is a principle when designing cloud-based systems?

a)

a) Assume everything will fail

b)

b) Always use monolithic architecture

c)

c) Keep everything on-premises

d)

d) Avoid automation

33.

Which of the following are pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

a)

a) Security

b)

b) Operational excellence

c)

c) Cost Optimization

d)

d) All of the above

34.

Which design principles are recommended when considering performance efficiency?

a)

a) Use serverless architectures

b)

b) Democratize advanced technologies

c)

c) Use manual scaling for workloads

d)

d) Use fixed resources

35.

AWS Trusted Advisor provides insight regarding which five categories of an AWS account?

a)

a) Performance

b)

b) Cost optimization

c)

c) Security

d)

d) Fault tolerance, Security, Cost optimization, Performance, Service limits

e)

e) Fault tolerance

36.

What is the focus of the sustainability pillar of the Well-Architected Framework?

a)

a) Minimizing the environmental impacts of running cloud workloads

b)

b) Maximizing profit in the cloud

c)

c) Enhancing the performance of cloud systems

d)

d) Ensuring the compliance of cloud workloads

37.

After you move to the AWS cloud, you want to ensure that the right security settings are put in place. Which online tool can assist in security compliance?

a)

a) AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

b) AWS CloudTrail

c)

c) AWS Config

d)

d) AWS IAM

38.

Which of the following is a measure of your system's ability to provide functionality when desired by the user?

a)

a) Reliability

b)

b) Availability

c)

c) Scalability

d)

d) Performance

39.

What is defined as the ability for a system to remain operational even if some of the components of that system fail?

a)

a) Fault tolerance

b)

b) High availability

c)

c) Disaster recovery

d)

d) Reliability

40.

Which of the following best describes a system that can withstand some measures of degradation, experiences minimal downtime, and requires minimal human intervention?

a)

a) Highly available system

b)

b) Fault-tolerant system

c)

c) Elastic system

d)

d) Scalable system

41.

Q1. Which of the following AWS tools help your application scale up or down based on demand?


a)

A. Availability Zones 


b)

B. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling 


c)

C. Aws CloudFormation 


d)

D. Elastic load balancing 


e)

E. AWS Config 


42.

Q2. Which service would you use to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?


a)

A. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

B. AWS Cloud Trail

c)

C. AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

D. Amazon Route 53


43.

Q3. Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling? ( Choose three ) 


a)

A. Only Supports Dynamic Scaling 


b)

B. Responds to changing conditions by adding or terminating instances


c)

C. Deliver Push Notifications 


d)

D. Launches instances from a specified Amazon Machine Image (AMI)


e)

E. Enforces a minimum number of running Amazon EC2 instances


44.

Q4. Which of the following must be configured on an Elastic Load Balancing load balancer 

        to expect incoming traffic ?


a)

A. A Port 


b)

B. A Network Interface 


c)

C. A Listener 


d)

D. An Instance 


45.

Q5. Which of the following elements are used to create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling 

       launch configuration?


a)

A. Amazon Machine Image (AMI)


b)

B. Load Balancer 


c)

C. Instance type


d)

D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC ) and Subnets


e)

 E. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes


46.

Q6.Which of the following services can help you conflict important metrics from 

      Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) and Amazon Elastic Compute 

      Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances?


a)

A. Amazon CloudFront 


b)

B. Amazon Cloud Search

c)

C. Amazon Cloud Watch 


d)

D. Amazon Cloud Trial

e)

E. Amazon E2C Scaling 


47.

Q7. Which of the following are elements of an Auto Scaling group ? (Choose three)


a)

A. Maximum size 


b)

B. Health Checks 


c)

C. Desired capacity


d)

D. Minimum size

48.

Q8. There is an adult at your company and they need to have a big log of all access to 

        AWS resources in the account. Which of the following services can assist in providing 

        these details?


a)

A. Amazon Cloud Watch 


b)

B. AWS Cloud Trial 


c)

C. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)

d)

D. Amazon Simple Notification Service ( Amazon SNS)

49.

Q9. In Elastic Load Balancing, when the load balancing detects an unhealthy target, which of 

       the following are true (Choose three)


a)

A. Stops routing traffic to that target


b)

B. Triggers an Alarm 


c)

C. Resumes routing traffic when it detects that the target is healthy again


d)

D. Resumes routing traffic when manually restarted 


e)

E. Routes traffic to a healthy target