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Polity 10

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission: 1. The Constitution authorises the President to determine the qualifications of members of the commission. 2. The chairman of the commission should be a person having experience in public affairs. 3. One of the members of the commission should be a judge of the high court or one qualified to be appointed as one. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

2.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India only mentions the office of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and not the Election Commissioners (EC). 2. The CEC has overriding powers while deciding upon any matter or issue. 3. Both CEC and ECs enjoy the security of tenure. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

3.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs): 1. It is a constitutional body as it is established by Article 338 of the Constitution. 2. The Central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the Scheduled Castes. 3. The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the AngloIndian Community as it does with respect to the Scheduled Castes. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

4.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India: 1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the President if both houses pass a recommendation with a simple majority. 2. It prepares and revises electoral rolls periodically. 3. It advises the President of India on the matter of disqualification of MPs. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

5.

Q. With reference to Inter-State Council consider the following statements: 1. Inter state Council is constituted at the discretion of the President of India. 2. It is constituted for investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest. 3. Union Home Minister is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Inter state Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

6.

Which of the following functions are not performed by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

a)

To investigate and monitor matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the STs

b)

Inquire specific complaints relating to deprivation of rights of ST’s.

c)

The caste of any area can be declared as a Scheduled Tribe in consultation with the Governor

d)

To present to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit reports upon the working of those safeguards.

7.

Q. Which one of the following authorities makes a recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular state?

a)

District Planning Committees

b)

State Finance Commission

c)

Finance Ministry of that State

d)

Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

8.

Q. With reference to the GST council, consider the following statements: 1. It is a constitutional body. 2. The Union Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the Council. 3. One-tenth of the total number of members of the Council is the quorum for conducting a meeting. 4. The vote of the central government shall have a weightage of one-half of the total votes cast in its meetings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)

2 and 3 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1, 3 and 4 only

d)

2, 3 and 4 only

9.

Q. Which of the following statements with regard to the Finance Commission is correct?

a)

Members of the Finance Commission are not eligible for reappointment

b)

The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding on the government

c)

The Finance Commission submits its report to the CAG

d)

Members of the Finance Commission hold office for such period as specified by the President

10.

Q. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India submits three reports to the Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does not come under that category?

a)

Audit report on Finance Accounts

b)

Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts

c)

Audit Report on Capital Accounts

d)

Audit Report on Commercial and Public sector Enterprises

11.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Notify dates and schedule of elections at the national, state and municipal levels. 2. To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country. 3. To advise the president whether elections can be held in the state under president’s rule . Which of the following functions is/are performed by the Election Commission of India?

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

3 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

12.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India. 2. The Chairman of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government.
3. Constitution contains elaborate provisions regarding the appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

13.

Q. Which of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are Correct? 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term. 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. 4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Select the correct answer using the code given below

a)

1, 2 and 4

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

1 and 2 only

14.

Q. Which of the following statements regarding Special Officer for Linguistic Minority is incorrect?

a)

Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

b)

Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal.

c)

Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution deals with special officer for linguistic minority.

d)

It submits its report to the Parliament of India

15.

Q. The Chief Election Commissioner is removed by following the same procedure as the removal of which of the following?

a)

Judges of the Supreme Court

b)

Chief Justice of the High Court

c)

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

d)

Lok Sabha Speaker

16.

Q. Who appoints the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission?

राज्य लोक सेवा आयोग के अध्यक्ष एवं सदस्यों की नियुक्ति कौन करता है?

a)

The President of India

b)

The Governor of State

c)

The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

d)

A Committee of Prime Minister, Home minister and the Leader of opposition

17.

Q. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India : 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

Only three

d)

All four

18.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): 1. It was established in 1964 as a statutory body. 2. It was established on the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission. 3. Its jurisdiction extends to members of the All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

19.

Q. Which of the following statement with respect to National Commission for Women (NCW) is not correct?

a)

The committee on the status of women in India (CSWI) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women.

b)

The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the Constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women.

c)

Under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, the NCW was set up as a statutory body.

d)

The chairman of National Human Rights commission is ex-officio member of National Commission for Women

20.

Q. Consider the following statements : 1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences against atomic and nuclear facilities. 2. State Government can order NIA to take over the investigation of any scheduled offence anywhere in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

21.

Q. The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of: 1. National Human Rights Commission 2. State Human Rights Commission 3. Joint State Human Rights Commission 4. Human Rights Courts Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a)

1 and 2

b)

1, 2 and 4

c)

1, 2, 3 and 4

d)

1, 2 and 3

22.

Q. Which of the following issues can be taken up by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? 1. Issues of manual scavenging 2. Problems faced by Notified and Denotified Tribes 3. Issues related to the right to health Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

3 only

23.

Q. Which of the following is/are functions of UPSC? 1. It is consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts. 2. It assists States in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required. 3. It is consulted as respects how any provision referred to in clause (4) of article 16 in which effect may be given to the provisions of article 335. Select the correct code given below

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

All of the above

24.

Q. Which of the following institutions in India closely resemble the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries?

भारत में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संस्था स्कैंडिनेवियाई देशों में लोकपाल संस्था से मिलती जुलती है?

a)

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

b)

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

c)

National Investigation Agency (NIA)

d)

Lokpal and Lokayukta

25.

Q. Which of the following is correct with reference to Financial Emergency under Article 360?

अनुच्छेद 360 के अंतर्गत वित्तीय आपातकाल के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है?

a)

The proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President cannot be questioned in any court.

b)

Proclamation declaring financial emergency can be approved only by Lok Sabha.

c)

Proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by a simple majority.

d)

The Parliament can make laws on the state subjects during Financial Emergency.

26.

Q. The proclamation of emergency in a state under Article 356 can continue beyond one year if--

अनुच्छेद 356 के अंतर्गत किसी राज्य में आपातकाल की घोषणा एक वर्ष से अधिक समय तक जारी रह सकती है, यदि--

a)

The High Court of the State certifies that the law and order situation in the State is very critical

b)

Election Commission certifies that it is difficult to hold elections for the Legislative Assemblies

c)

The governor of the state certifies that the law and order situation in the state is not under control.

d)

President is satisfied about the dire situation in the state through an independent inquiry

27.

Q.With reference to the National Emergency, consider the following statements: 1. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. 2. Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed only by Loksabha by a special majority. 3. This special majority provision was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Only one

b)

Only two

c)

All three

d)

None

28.

Q. With reference to the Financial Emergency, consider the following statements. 1. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency is final. 2. A proclamation declaring a financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

29.

Q.Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

a)

The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

b)

The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.

c)

Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.

d)

If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State

30.

Q.Which of the following is correct with reference to Financial Emergency under Article 360? 1. The proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President cannot be questioned in any court. 2. Proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by a simple majority. 3. Proclamation declaring a financial emergency can be approved only by Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

1, 2 and 3